Saturday, November 19, 2011

IAS Main Exam 2011: Question Paper of Essay


he UPSC Civil Services Main Examination 2011 commenced on October 29, 2011. Here Jagranjosh.com provides you the question papers of IAS Main Examination. The following is the Question Paper of Essay of IAS Main Exam 2011.
ESSAY (Compulsory)
Time Allowed : Three Hours                            

  Maximum Marks : 200
INSTRUCTIONS

The essay must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued, to you. The name of the medium must .be stated clearly on the cover of the answer- book in the space provided for the purpose. No credit will be given to the essay written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.
(Examiners will pay special attention to the candidate's grasp of his/ her' material, its relevance to the subject chosen, and to his/ her ability to think constructively and to present his/her ideas concisely, logically and effectively.)

Write an essay on any one of the following topics:    200

1. Creation of smaller states and the consequent administrative, economic and developmental implications.
2. Does Indian cinema shape our popular culture or merely reflect it?
3. Credit-based higher education system-status, opportunities and challenges.
4. In the Indian context, both human intelligence and technical intelligence are crucial in combating terrorism.

IAS Main Exam 2011: Question Paper of General Studies Paper I


The UPSC Civil Services Main Examination 2011 commenced on October 29, 2011. Here Jagranjosh.com provides you the question papers of IAS Main Examination. The following is the Question Paper of General Studies (GS) Paper I of IAS Main Exam 2011.

General Studies
Paper-I
Time Allowed : Three Hour                                   Maximum Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English 

Answer must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answer written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt all questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question is indicated at the end of the question.

1. Answer any three of the following in about 250 words each:   20x3=60

(a) ‘Essentially all that is contained in part IV-A of the Constitution is just a codification of tasks integral to the Indian way of life.’ Critically examine this statement.

(b) ‘The exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but is based on several principles, and discretion has to be exercised in public considerations.’ Analyse this statements in the context of the judicial powers of the President of India.

(c) Discuss the extent, causes, and implications of the ‘nutrition transition’ said to be underway in India.

(d) Bring out the salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, and the implications of its amendment in 2003.

2. Answer one of the following in about 250 words:   20

(a) Trace the salient sequence of events in the popular revolt that took place in February 1946 in the then, ‘Royal Indian Navy’ and bring out its significance in the freedom struggle. Do you agree with the view that the sailors who took part in this revolt were some of the unsung heroes of the freedom struggle?

(b) Evaluate the influence of the three important women’s organizations of the early twentieth century in India on the Country’s society and politics. To what extent do you think were the social objectives of these organizations constrained by their political objectives?

3. Answer one of the following in about 250 words:   20

(a) Critically examine the design of the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) scheme. Do you think it has a better chance of success than the Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) in achieving its objectives?

(b) Highlight the structure, objectives and role of the Advertising Standards Council of India, In what way has the August 2006 government notification made it more effective?

4. Comment on any five of the following in about 150 words each: 12x5=60

(a) Salient recommendations of the RBI-appointed Damodaran committee on customer service in Banks.

(b) Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS).

(c) Evolution of ‘Green Benches’ in our higher judiciary.

(d) Distinction between ‘Department Related Parliamentary Standing Committees’ and ‘Parliamentary Forums’.

(e) Benefits and potential drawbacks of ‘cash-transfers’ to ‘Below Poverty Line’ (BPL) households.

(f) New initiatives during the 11th Five Year Plan in the National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB).

5. Examine any three of the following in about 150 words each:   12x3=36

(a) The impact of climate change on water resources in India.

(b) Measures taken by the Indian government to combat privacy in the Indian Ocean.

(c) The significance of counter-urbanisation in the improvement of metropolitan cities in India.

(d) Problems specific to the denotified and nomadic tribes in India.


6. In the context of the freedom struggle, write short notes (not exceeding 50 words each) on the following:  5x3=15

(a) ‘Benoy-Badal-Dinesh’ martyrdom
(b) Bharat Naujawan Sabha
(c) ‘Babbar Akali’ movement.
7. Comment on the following in not more than 50 words each:  5X6 = 30

(a) Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme in India.

(b) Why the Central Statistics Office has notified a new series of Consumer Price Index from this year?

(c) Composition and functions of the National Executive Comittee of the National Disaster Management Authority.

(d) The Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 and why it has been in the news recently?

(e) The Telecommunications Ministry’s proposed Spectrum Management Commission.

(f) The Community-Led Total Sanitation (CLTS) approach to sanitation.

8. Attempt the following in not more than 50 words each:  5X4= 20

(a) Distinguish either between the ‘Moatsu’ and ‘Yemshe’ festivals of Nagaland or the ‘Losar’ and ‘Khan’ festivals of Arunachal Pradesh.

(b) Write a sentence each on any five of the following traditional theatre forms:

(i) Bhand Pather

(ii) Swang
(iii) Maach
(iv) Bhaona
(v) Mudiyettu
(vi) Dashavatar

(c) What are the major different styles of unglazed pottery making in India?

(d) List the classical dance forms of India as per the Sangeet Natak Akademi.

9. Comment on the following in not more than 50 words each:    5x5=25

(a) Nisarga-Runa technology of BARC.

(b) The first-aid that you can safely administer to a person standing next to you at the bus-stop who suddenly faints.

(c) The Kaveri K-10 aero-engine.

(d) Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) technology.

(e) E-governance initiatives by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).

10. Who are the following and why have they been in the news recently? (Each answer should not exceed 20 words).  2x7=14

(a) Lieutenant Navdeep Singh

(b) Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar

(c) Lobsang Sangay

(d) P.R. Sreejesh

(e) Nileema Mishra

(f) V. Tejeswini Bai

(g) Aishwarya Narkar

IAS Main Exam 2011: Question Paper of General Studies Paper II


The UPSC Civil Services Main Examination 2011 commenced on October 29, 2011. Here Jagranjosh.com provides you the question papers of IAS Main Examination. The following is the Question Paper of General Studies (GS) Paper II of IAS Main Exam 2011.
General Studies
Paper-II
Time Allowed : Three Hours                                    Maximum Marks : 300
INSTRUCTIONS
Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English.
Answer must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answer written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.
Candidates should attempt all questions strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each question.
The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question is indicated at the end of the question.
Two (2) graph sheets are attached to this question paper for attempting questions 9(b) and 10(c). The graph sheets are to be carefully detached from the question paper and securely attached to the answer book by the candidate.
1. Answer any two of the following in about 250 words:    20x2=40
(a) List the Central Asian Republics and identify those of particular strategic and economic importance to India. Examine the opportunities and bottlenecks in enhancing relations with these countries.
(b) Critically examine the security and strategic implications of the so-called ‘string of pearls’ theory for India.
(c) “Compared to the South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA), the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multisectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation Free Trade Area (BIMSTEC FTA) seems to be more promising.” Critically evaluate.
2. Answer any three of the following in about 150 words each:  12x3=36
(a) Subsequent to the Nuclear Suppliers’ Group (NSG) waiver in 2008, what are the agreements on nuclear energy that India has signed with different countries?
(b) Trace the progress of India’s efforts for a joint counter-terrorism strategy with China. What are the likely implications of the recent Xinjiang violence on these efforts?
(c) Bring out the importance of the ‘Small and Medium Enterprises Expo and Conference’ held in Dubai last year for Indian business.
(d) What are the salient features of the political and economic relationship between India and South Africa?
3. Answer either of the following in about 250 words:    20
(a) “The causes and implications of the Jasmine Revolution and its spread are as much economic in nature as they are political.” Critically evaluate.
(b) In the context of the ‘Euro-zone’ debt crisis, examine the proposed ‘six-pack’ solution. Do you think that this has a better chance of success than the earlier Stability and Growth Pact?
4. Answer any four of the following in about 150 words each:  12x4=48
(a) “As regards the increasing rates of melting of Arctic Sea ice, the interests of the Arctic Council nations may not coincide with those of the wider world.” Explain.
(b) Is there still a role for the concept of balance of power in contemporary international politics? Discuss.
(c) “Strategic interests seem to be replacing commercial interests for the host country with regard to Cam Ranh Bay.” Amplify.
(d) To what extent has the withdrawal of al-Shabab from Mogadishu given peace a real chance in Somalia? Assess.
(e) On a Formula-one (F-1) racing car track, information to drivers is generally signalled through the standardized use of flags of different colours. Describe the meanings associated with any six flags listed below:
(i) White flag
(ii) Black flag
(iii) Yellow flag
(iv) Blue flag
(v) Black and white flag divided diagonally
(vi) Chequered flag
(vii) Yellow and red striped flag
5. Comment on any thirteen of the following in about 50 words each:    5x13=65
(a) International Year of Chemistry
(b) The scourge of e-waste
(c) ‘Designer’ poultry eggs
(d) INSPIRE programme of the Department of Science and Technology
(e) The ‘Kessler syndrome’ with reference to space debris
(f) Omega-3 fatty acids in our food
(g) Difference between ‘spin-dyring’ and ‘tumble-drying’ technology with reference to drying of washed clothes
(h) The diminishing population of vultures
(i) ‘Arensic-bug’ and the significance of its discovery
(j) F-22 ‘Raptor’ aircraft
(k) ‘Concentrated’ solar energy and ‘photovoltaic’ solar energy
(l) Analog, hybrid and IP systems in CCTV technology
(m) Various applications of Kevlar
(n) Differences between Compact Disc (CD), Digital Versatile Disc (DVD) and Blu-ray Disc
6. Comment on the following in about 50 words each:    5x5=25
(a) Functions of the World Customs Organization. (WCO)
(b) Success of international intervention in Cote d’Ivoire (Ivory Coast)
(c) Strategies adopted by Colombia to eliminates its drug cartels
(d) World Food Programme (WFP) of the United Nations (UN)
(e) Sculpture of the broken chair in front of the UN building at Geneva
7. Why have each of the following been in the news recently? (Each answer in a sentence or two only)    2x10=20
(a) Tiangong-1
(b) K-computer
(c) Gliese 581g
(d) MABLE robot
(e) ‘Operation Shady Rat’
(f) ‘SAGA-220’
(g) ‘Billion Acts of Green’
(h) L’Aquila earthquake
(i) OPERA detecter at Gran Sasso
(j) Saturn’s Titan

8. Why have the following been in the news recently? (Each answer in a sentence or two only)    2x5=10
(a) 'News International' newspaper
(b) Mustafa Abdul-Jalil
(c) Abel Kirui
(d) Natalie Portman
(e) Nawaf Salam

9. (a) List the requisities of a good table.
Present the following in a suitable tabular form:     5
(a) In-1980 out of a 1750 workers of a factory, 1200 were members of a union. The number of women employed was 200 of which 175 did not belong to the union. In 1985 the number of union workers increased to 1580 of which 1290 were men. On the other hand the number of non-union workers fell down to 208 of which 180 were men. In 1990 there were 1800 employees who belonged to the union and 50 who did not belong to the union. Of all the employees in 1990, 300 were women of which only 8 did not belong to the union.
(b) Draw an given for the following distribution, Read the median from the graph. How many students get between 60 and 72?
Marks No. of students
50-55 6
55-60 10
60-65 
22
65-70 
30
70-75 16
75-80 12
80-100 15
(c) From the following data calculate the missing frequency:
No. of tables No. of persons cured
4-8 11
8-12 13
12-16 16
16-20 14
20-24 ?
24-28 9
28-32 17
32-36 6
36-40 4
 The average number of tables to cure fever was 19.9
(d) Life time of 400 tubes tested in a company is distributed as follows:
Life-time(Hours)
No. of tubes
300-399 14
400-499 46
500-599 58
600-699 76
700-799 68
800-899 62
900-999 48
1000-1099 22
1100-1199 6
Determine:        4
(i) Relative frequency of sixth class.
(ii) Percentage of tubes whose life-time does not exceed 600 hours.
(iii) Percentage of tubes whose life-time is greater than or equal to 900 hours.
(iv) Percentage of tubes whose life-time is at least 500 but less than 1000 hours.
10. (a) A car travels 25km at 25km at 50 kph, and 25 km at 75 kph. Find the average speed of the car for the entire journey.
(b) The mean of 200 items was 50. Later on it was found that two items were wrongly read as 92 and 8 instead of 192 and 88. Find the correct mean.    4
(c) Students were asked how long it took them to walk to school on a particular morning. A cumulative frequency distribution was formed.
Time taken (minutes)
C.f.
<5 28
<10 45
<15 81
<20 143
<25 280
<30 349
<35 374
<40 395
<45 400
(i) Draw a cumulative Frequency curve.
(ii) Estimate how many students took less than 18 minutes.
(iii) 6% of students took x minutes or longer. Find x.        6

(d) An investors buys Rs. 1200 worth of shares in a company each month. During the first five months he bought the shares at a price of Rs. 10, Rs. 12, Rs. 15, Rs. 20 and Rs. 24 per share. After 5 months, what is the average price paid for the shares by him

Friday, November 18, 2011

JPSC to revise model answers soon

After receiving the conclusion by the panel, the Jharkhand Public Service Commission (JPSC) is ready with new set of answers. The panel was set up for validating complaints about anomalies in the model answers given by it for preliminary exam of fourth civil services. The updated model answers would be put on commission’s website by next week that would surely upset the cut-off marks and reshuffle the list of successful candidates.

Sources in the commission said that many more names would be added in the list of candidates. “As anomalies have been found in almost all the subjects the process is taking time. We were expecting (revised result) this week itself but wanted to validate the findings from our own experts. If the commission decides that a fresh list of candidates should be released then we would come-up with a revised PT result soon,” said an official of the JPSC.

Meanwhile, declaring result in the proportion of the candidates appeared in the examination took place in March this year has turned a bone of contention. High court, while hearing the plea filed by a section of candidates, has given two-week time to the commission for filing its reply. The petition demanded that the number of successful candidates in PT exam should be 10 per cent of the candidates appeared in it. The commission on its part had reached to the Government for any direction in this regard but no instruction as come so far, leaving it in limbo.

“If we go for 10 per cent formula then probably 4,000 more candidates may figure in the list. Otherwise from 500 to 1,000 more candidates would be inducted based on the revised answers,” added the officer.

About 24 subject experts were roped in by the JPSC to evaluate the objections raised by some candidates after the official answers were displayed following the PT result. According to insiders, the panel of subject experts had found the objections correct for almost all subjects. Subjects such as history, geography and some others have as many as six to seven wrong answers.

JPSC Subject wise Category wise PT Result



No Optionals Appearance     Passed
1 Animal Husb          109 2
2 Statistics 86                   4
3 Physics 353 7
4 Mech Eng. 421 9
5 Elec.Eng 209 10
5 Geology 150 9
6 Electronic.Eng 446 10
7 Civil Eng 209                  10
8 Medical Sc. 86 11
9 Philosophy 346 12
10 Chemistry 415                  13
11 Agriculture 333 18
12 Botany 541 22
13 Psychology         629 28
14 Mathematics 621 31
15 Comerce 1317 34
16 zoology               948 31
17 Law                     1728                44
18 Pol.Sc 3507 138
19 Economics 2312 152
20 Sociology 3600 243
21 Pub,Ad. 4189 227
22 Geography 5043 282
23 History 30141                807
Total 57521 2194


General 26364 735
SC                         5285                    172
ST 12673 710
BC-1 4037 357
BC-2 9162 220
TOTAL 57521 2194