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Wednesday, October 26, 2011

UPPSC 2011-QUESTION PAPER: Geography

Max. Marks : 300

Time: 2 Hours

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1. The Cuddapah system of rocks belong to

(a) Archaen Group

(b) Aryan Group

(d) Purana Group

2. The alluvial soils found along the banks of the rivers in the Ganga Plain are called

(a) Khadar

(b) Bhangar

(d) Loess

3. Which one of the following districts of Eastern Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of sugar mills?

(a) Mahrajganj

(b) Deoria

(d) Gorakhpur

4. The State of India having almost monopoly in the production of chromite is

(a) Bihar

(b) Orissa

(d) Maharashtra

5. Which one of the following States of India has the largest forest cover?

(a) Uttarakhand

(b) Jharkhand

(d) Jamm & Kashmir

6. Which one of the following countries is known as the 'land of Rjce- Revolution' ?

(a) China

(b) India

(d) Philippines

7. The theory of cumulative causation and spatial interaction was propounded by

(a) W. Rostow

(b) F. Perroux

(d) W. Isard

8. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(a) Donetz Basin - Russia

(b) Lancashire - U.K.

(d) Saar - Germany

9. Of the following whose loeational theory of economic activities is based on the premise that natural resources are ubiquitous whereas economic resources occur at

locales?

(a) Yon Thunen

(b) Alfred Weber

(d) John Weaver

10. Largest industrial gas reserves are found in

(a) Iran

(b) Iraq

(d) Russia

11. When the total population is divided by arable land, the density thus obtained is called

(a) Physical density

(b) Agricultural density

(d) Arithmetic density

12. Tertiary activities include:

1. Agriculture

2. Construction

3. Services

4. Trade

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

13. Noon rays of the Sun fall perpendicular on 21st June at

(a) Kolkata

(b) Ranchi

(d) Ahmedbad

14. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I List - II

(Landform) (Agent of erosion)

A. Pothole 1. Underground water

B. Sinkhole 2. Sea water

C. Stack 3. Wind

D. Tafoni 4. River

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1

(b) 2 1 3 4

(d) 1 2 4 3

15. Which one of the following layers denotes rapid change. of sea water density in the depth zone of 300 m - 1000 m?

(a) Halocline

(b) Thermocline

(d) Ecocline

16. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Pediplain - W.Penck

(b) Peneplain - W.M. Davis

(d) Panfan - A.C.Lawson

17. Among the following volcanoes which is known as the light house of the Mediterranean Sea?

(a) Stramboli

(b) Kotopaxi

(d) Elburz

18. Who devised the Index of development based on principal component analysis?

(a) O.E. Baker

(b) J. Fried-mann

(d) C.D. Harris

19. Who of the following advanced the theory of law of Retail Gravitation?

(a) P.O. Converse

(b) A.E. Smailes

(d) R.E. Dickinson

20. The concept of probabilism is associated with

(a) G. Taylor

(b) P. Hartshorne

(d) O.H.K. Spate

21. The limit of photic zone is determined by

(a) Density of sea water

(b) Salinity of sea water

(d) Temperature of sea water

22. Which of the following statements regarding bio- fuels are correct?

1. It is obtained from maize and sugarcane crops.

2. It is a cost effective fuel.

3. It does not affect food security.

4. It is an eco-friendly source of fuel.

(a) 1 and 2 are correct.

(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

(d) 3 and 4 are correct.

23. The correct sequence of languages in descending order in terms of their number of speakers in the world is

(a) Spanish, English, Chinese, Hindi

(b) English, Chinese, Hindi, Spanish

(d) Chinese, English, Hindi, Spanish

24. Who of the following said "Climate was the fundamental factor in the rise of civilization" ?

(a) Ellsworth Huntington

(b) Carl Saver

(d) Griffith Taylor

25. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Aetas - Philippines

(b) Inuits - Greenland

(d) Masai - Kenya

26. Kalpsar project fur the supply of sweet water is located in

(a) Haryana

(b) Kamataka

(d) Gujarat

27. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated in

(a) 1984

(b) 1986

(d) 1990

28. Which one of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of the Government of India?

(a) Afforestation

(b) Solar power

(d) Waste to energy conversion

29. Assertion (A): Ecological productivity decreases from the equator towards the poles.

Reason (R): Insolation rapidly decreases from the equator towards the poles.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) arc true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) arc true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

30. Assertion (A): Conservation IS a basic element of envirorunental planning. Conservation and development are complementary to each other.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

31. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) Biodiversity hot spots - Areas of rich biodiversity.

(b) Leopold Matrix - Morphometry of drainage basins

(d) Coral bleaching - Decrease in the temperature of sea water

32. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer USing the code given below:

List - I List -II

A. E. Huntington 1. Social Darvinism

B. G. Taylor 2. Probabilism

C. F. Ratzel 3. Scientific determinism

D. O.H.K. 4. Stop and Go determinism

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 2 1 3 4

(d) 1 4 3 2

33. The terms longitude and latitude were first used by

(a) Herodotus

(b) Eratosthcnese

(d) Ptolemy

34. Who of the following devised behavioural matrix?

(a) I. Burton

(b) I. Flex

(d) A. Peet

35. Who of the following propounded the 'Principle of least effort' ?

(a) J.Q. Stewart

(b) W.l. Reilly

(d) G.K. Zipf

36. Who of the following is known for the work 'Spaces of Hope' ?

(a) D.Harvey

(b) J.B.Harley

(d) P.Taylor

37. The concept of 'ecumene' was advanced by

(a) Alexander von Humboldt

(b) Eratosthenese

(d) Strabo

38. Who of the following propounded the 'organic theory of State'?

(a) Ratzel

(b) Humboldt

(d) Mackinder

39. The concept of map projections was first advanced by

(a) Aristotle

(b) Hippacartus

(d) Ptolemy

40. "Geobrraphy in itscl f is a philosophy of the world of man." The above statement is contributed to

(a) Albert Dcmangcon

(b) Jean Brunhes

(d) P.E. James

41. The chorological approach in Geography was enunciated by

(a) Alfred Hettner

(b) Carl Saver

(d) Richard Hartshorne

42. following was the Who among the first map maker?

(a) Crates

(b) Ptolemy

(d) Eratosthenese

43. Which one of the following methods of representation of height on maps is most suitable for flat regions?

(a) Hachure

(b) Formline

(d) Bench Mark (B.M.)

44. Which one of the following characteristics is represented by Mollweide Projection?

(a) Equidistant

(b) Orthomorphic

(d) Homolographic

45. Who of the following made extensive corrections to the world map of Ptolemy?

(a) Al-Edrisi

(b) Al-Masudi

(d) Ibn-Batuta

46. The leading producer of milk in the world is

(a) China

(b) India

(d) Russia

47. Identify the correct seq uence of the population of States (2011 provisional) In descending order:

(a) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal, Bihar

(b) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal

(d) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, West Bengal

48. Match List - I with List - II and select and the correct answer from the given below:

List- I List - II

(Graph) (Major Use)

A. Hythergraph 1. RepresentatIon of tern perature and rainfall

B. Pyramid 2. Representation of Age & Sex structure

C. Cartogram 3. Representation of data on maps

D. Hypsographic 4. Representation of height of land and depth of ocean

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 1 3 2 4

(d) 3 2 1 4

49. Which of the following countries has the lowest infantile mortality?

(a) China

(b) India

(d) Sri Lanka

50. Arrange the following States of India is descending order of their reserves of coal.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

1. Chhattisgarh

2. Jharkhand

3. Orissa

4. West Bengal

Codes:

(a) 1,2,3,4

(b) 2,3,1,4

(d) 2,4, 3,1

51. In India the largest producer of marine fish is

(a) Gujarat

(b) Kerala

(d) Maharashtra

52. In India more than half of the production of soyabean comes from

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Rajasthan

53. The Deccan trap was formed by the

(a) Dharwar Vulcanicity

(b) Mesozoic Vulcanicity

(d) Palaeozoic Vulcanicity

54. The correct sequence of States In terms of population density (2011) in descending order is

(a) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala

(b) Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh

(d) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala

55. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Sustained life on earth is a characteristic of ecosystem.

(b) Nature has spent millions of years to refine a stable ecosystem

(d) The relative loss of energy due to respiration decreases with higher trophic levels

56. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I List - II

(Biosphere Reserve) (State)

A. Dehang-Debang 1. Orissa

B. Manas 2. Meghalaya

C. Nokrek 3. Assam

D. Similipal 4. Arunachal Pradesh

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1

(b) 1 2 3 4

(d) 1 3 2 4

57. The concept of 'ecological niche' was first introduced by

(a) C.C.Park

(b) E.P.Odum

(d) G.E.Hutchinson

58. On which of the following livers of Bhutan is Chukha Hydel Project located?

(a) Raidak

(b) Amochu

(d) Dongmechu

59. Presently the largest producer of cow milk in the world is

(a) China

(b) U.S.A.

(d) Russia

60. The driest area of the world is located In

(a) Thar Desert

(b) Mongolia

(d) Chile

61. Which one of the following countries is the least urbanized country in the world?

(a) Uganda

(b) Sri Lanka

(d) Burundi

62. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I List - II

A. Largest city by population in the world 1. Hulum Buir

B. Smallest city by population in the world 2. Vatican City

C. Largest city by area in the world 3. Tokyo

D. Smallest city by area in the world 4. Hum

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 2 3 1 4

(d) 4 1 3 2

63. In a climograph high relative humidity and high wet bulb temperature denotes

(a) Keen climate

(b) Muggy climate

(d) Scorching climate

64. The border of Ethiopia does not touch which one of the following countries?

(a) Uganda

(b) Sudan

(d) Kenya

65. Which one of the following countries is devoid of copper resource?

(a) Peru

(b) Poland

(d) Portugal

66. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I List - II

(Tribe) (Region)

A. Semang 1. Congo Basin

B. Kirghiz 2. Malaysia

C. Bushman 3. Central Asia

D. Pygmies 4. Kalahari Desert

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 2 3 1

(b) 1 3 2 4

(d) 2 3 4 1

67. Zambia docs not have a common border with

(a) Tanzania

(b) Mozambique

(d) Angola

68. Arrange the following countries in ascending order of their population.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. Bangladesh

2. Brazil

3. Indonesia

4. Pakistan

Codes:

(a) 1,4,2,3

(b) 1,2,3,4

(d) 4,3,2,1

69. Which one of the following is characterised with maximum of wild life and plant diversity?

(a) Temperate grasslands

(b) Temperate deciduous forests

(d) Deserts and Savannas

70. The largest group of Arctic people is formed by

(a) Yakuts and Lapps

(b) Lapps and Zyrians

(e) Zyrians and Eskimos

(d) Yakuts and Zyrains

71. The North Pole is always in the light

(a) From September 23 to March 21

(b) From March 21 to September 23

(d) From December 22 to March 21

Assertion (A) : Sugarcane is considered a tropical crop and yet it is grown extensively outside the tropics in India.

Reason (R) The extra-tropical areas in India have tropical temperature due to the presence of Himalayas in the North.

72. Select the correct answer from the code given below:

a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

73. The Canterbury grasslands are not like:

(a) Downs

(b) Pampas

(d) Veld

74. Formosa Sea lies between

(a) China and Philippines

(b) China and Taiwan

(d) China and South Korea

75. Kalahari Desert is located in

1. Botswana

2. Namibia

3. Zambia

4. Zimbabwe

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

76. The largest part of the dry continental type of climate is found in

(a) South America

(b) Africa

(d) North America

77. Which one of the following is not a pastoral nomad ?

(a) Masai

(b) Kirghiz

(d) Pygmies

78. Which of the following volcanoes are active volcanoes?

1. Aconcagua

2. Etna

3. Fujiyama

4. Vesuvius

Select the correct answer from he codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

79. The essential feature of shifting cultivation is the

(a) Rotation of crops

(b) Mono-cropping

(d) Rotation of fields

80. Assertion (A) : Aridity is the distincti ve characteristic of the deserts.

Reason (R) They receive low rainfall and have high evaporation.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

81. Which of the following soils are not insitu soils?

(a) Chernozem

(b) Laterite

(d) Chestnut

82. Assertion (A) The circum-pacific belt is the most vulnerable zone of Tsunamis.

Reason (R) It is tectonically most active area and generates world's major earthquakes.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

83. Which one of the following seas is the largest in area?

(a) Sea of Okhotsk

(b) Sea of Japan

(d) Bering Sea

84. Which one of the following is the main geo-thermal energy producing country ?

(a) China

(b) U.S.A.

(d) India

85. Which one of the following is an example of a block mountain?

(a) Aravalli

(b) Andes

(d) Caucasus

86. The largest reserves of coal in the world are found in

(a) U.S.A.

(b) Russia

(d) Australia

87. The most famous million city of Siberia is

(a) Chelyabinsk

(b) Gorky

(d) Novosibirsk

88. Which one of the following representative fraction (R.F.) represents the scale 6" = 1 mile ?

(a) 1: 63,360

(b) 1: 1,26,720

(d) 1: 2,53,440

89. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

90: Match List - I with List - II and Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List - I List - II (Use)

A. Anemometer 1. Measuring angle of slope / dip of rock strata

B. Sextant 2. Locating object space

C. Clinometer 3. Measuring speed of wind

D. Radar 4. Measuring heights of celestial bodies from ships

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 4 1 2 3

(d) 3 4 1 2

91. If the R.F. is 1:40 which of the following distances can be correctly shown by using a diagonal scale ?

(a) 2.0 metre

(b) 2.3 metre

(d) 2.333 metre

92. Which of the'. following amount of rainfall is depicted by the symbol , on the Indian Daily Weather Maps ?

(a) -0.15 cm

(b) -0.25 cm

(e) - 0.75 cm

(d) - 1.50 cm

93. The symbol ® represents which one of the following status of clouds in Indian Daily Weather Maps?

(a) 5/8 low clouds

(b) 3/4 high clouds

(d) overcast high clouds

94. The three point problem in geological maps is faced when

(a) An outcrop is fully visible at only one point

(b) An outcrop is partly visible only at one point

(d) None of the above

95. In which of the following map projections, all latitudes are standard parallel?

(a) Polyconic projection

(b) Simple conic projection

(d) Mercator's projection

96. Which one of the following symbols is used on the Weather Map of India to indicate a wind speed of 15 knots/hour ?

97. On the given diagram the shape of the slope profile along A-B line will result in a slope profile showing

(a) Convex slope

(b) Concave slope

(d) Terraced slope

98. Which one of the following South-East Asian countries predominantly consists of Christian community population?

(a) Thailand

(b) Indonesia

(d) Philippines

99. Which one of the foIlowing is different from the others?

(a) Prairies

(b) Selvas

(d) Pampas

100. Which one of the following is the more stable trait for the classi fication of human races?

(a) Nasal Index

(b) Cephalic Index

(d) Skin colour

101. following scholars the concept of Which one of the has propounded Humanism?

(a) Yi-Fu-Tuan

(b) R. Hartshorne

(d) Peter Haggett

102. Who of the following has used the world Geopacifics?

(a) T. Griffith Taylor

(b) Mackindcr

(d) Huntington

103. Which one of the following is the port city of Sooth Africa?

(a) Bloemfontein

(b) East London

(d) Kimberley

104. Assertion (A) Chernozems are black soils.

Reason (R) They are deficient in organic matter.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

105. The 'zone and strata' theory about the evolution of human races was propounded by

(a) A.C.Haddon

(b) A.L.Krober

(d) G.Taylor

106. Which one of the following is called marine snowfall ?

(a) Fall of snow flakes on sea surface

(b) Fall of hail on sea surface

(d) Continuous fall of tiny marine sediments on ocean floors.

107. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?

(a) Rossbx Waves - Jet stream

(b) EI Nino - Strong Monsoon

(d) Hadley cell - Mid-Latitude cell

108. The 'Spice Park' has been established by Spice Board of India at

(a) Haridwar

(b) Valley of Flowers

(d) Kashmir Valley

109. The biggest island of the Indian Ocean is

(a) Maldives

(b) Madagascar

(d) Sumatra

110. In which of the following States of India is Ghana Bird Sanctuary located ?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) West Bengal

(d) Karnataka

111. The largest wind energy farm of India is located in

(a) Kerala

(b) Gujarat

(d) Madhya Pradesh

112. Which one of the following inland waterways in India is shortest In length?

(a) Kollam - Kottapuram

(b) Sadia - Dhubri

(d) Allahabad - Haldia

113. Which one of the following is the first indigenous nuclear power plant of the country?

(a) Kaiga

(b) Kalpakkarr

(d) Kakrapar

114. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched '?

(a) Green Revolution Agriculture

(by White Revolution - Milk Production

(d) Blue Revolution - Pisciculture

115. Which of the following / Union Territory of the country does not have a railway line?

(a) Pondicherry

(b) Tripura

(d) Meghalaya

116. Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of Himalaya Mountain passes from East to West?

(a) Shipki La - Lipulekh - Nathu La - Bomdilla

(b) Lipulekh - Shipki La - Nathu La - Bomdilla

(d) Nathu La - Lipulekh - Shipki La - Bomdilla

117. Which one of the following districts of U.P has the highest ratio of literacy in the census of 2011 ?

(a) Ghaziabad

(b) Lucknow

(d) Raebareilly

118. Which one of the following States of India receives lowest average annual rainfall ?

(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Jammu & Kashmir

(d) Madhya Pradesh

119. The largest reserve of crude oil In India is found in

(a) Assam

(b) Gujarat

(d) Western Offshore

120. In India Koppen's 'Amw' climatic type is found in

(a) Eastern Coast

(b) Western Coast

(d) Western Himalaya

UPPCS 2011 Prelims Indian History Question Paper

1. Which one of the following had seconded the quite India Resolution of 42?

(a) A.K. Azad

(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

2. In which of the following session of the Indian National Congress did Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi participate for the first time?

(a) Calcutta Session, 1901

(b) Banaras Session, 1905

(d) Lucknow Session, 1916

3. Which one of the following had supported the Non-cooperation Resolution of Mahatma Gandhi in the Special Session of the Indian National Congress at Calcutta in 1920?

(a) C.R. Das

(b) B.C. Pal

(d) Motilal Nehru

4. Which one of the following was the British Agent of Jhansi at the time of it’s annexation into the British dominion?

(a) Major Malcolm

(b) Major Ellis

(d) Martin Montgomery

5. Which one of the following had drafted the fundamental Rights Resolution passed in the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1931?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Mahatma Gandhi

(d) Subhash Chandra Bose

6. Which one of the following had led the defence National Army trial in the Red Fort of Delhi ?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Asif Ali

(d) Bhulabhai J.Desai

7. Arrange the following events of the Indian Revolution of 1857 in their correct chronological order by the help of the codes given below :

1. Inciedent of Mangal Pandey at Barakpur.

2. Inciedent of Soldiers at Meerut.

3. Uprising at Jhansi.

4. Uprising at Kanpur.

Codes :

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4

(b) 4, 3, 2, 1

(d) 4, 2, 1, 3

8. Consider the formation of the following associations before the establishment of the Indian National Congress :

1. The Indian Association

2. Madras Native Association

3. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha

4. India League

Find the correct chronological order of the formation of the Association by the codes given below :

(a) 2, 3, 4, 1

(b) 1, 2, 3, 4

(d) 3, 2, 1, 4

9. The biographer of A.O Hume is

(a) William Wedderburn

(b) Webb Miller

(d) B.R. Nanda

10. Who was the first Indian to have written in an Indian language on the causes of the Revolt of 1857 ?

(a) Syed Ahmad Khan

(b) V.D. Savarkar

(d) None of the above

11. Who was the Governor-General of India during the ‘Third Anglo-Mysore War’ ?

(a) Warren Hastings

(b) Lord Cornwallis

(d) Sir John Shore

12. Which one of the following statements is not a feature of the Permanent (Land) Settelment?

(a) It was Implemented in Bengal, Bihar and orrisa

(b) There where three parties in it viz, the Government, Zamindar and the Ryots.

(d) The total amount of the land-revenue to be collected was Rupees four Crores.

13. The Battle of Balakot in A.D. 1831 was fought between the forces of

(a) East India Company and the Afghan

(b) East India Company and the Marathas

(d) Raja Ranjit Singh and Syed Ahmad of Rae Bareli

14. Which one of the following Europian trading companies adopted the ‘Blue Water Policy’ in India ?

(a) French Company

(b) Portuguese Company

(d) British East India Company

15. The Battle of Wandiwash (1760) was fought between

(a) British and French Companies

(b) British and Dutch Companies

(d) French and Dutch Companies

16. Which one of the following had proposed the name of W.C. Banerjee for the post of President of the Indian National Congress at its first session in Bombay (1885) ?

(a) A.O. Hume

(b) K.T. Telang

(d) N.N. Sen

17. Which one of the following founded the ‘Atmiya Sabha’ ?

(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(b) Devendra Nath Tagore

(d) Akshay Kumar Dutt

18. Which of the region was ruled by the Gujara-Pratiharas at the time Turkish invasion of Northern India ?

(a) Kashmir

(b) Madhyadesh

(d) Kannauj

19. Who among the following had introduced ‘Vaishnavism’ in Kamrupa ?

(a) Chaitanya

(b) Purandradasa

(d) Sankaradeva

20. Sugandhadevi, who issued coins with the figure of seated Lakshmi was a Queen of

(a) Karnataka

(b) Kashmir

(d) Saurashtra

21. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : According to Mitakshara, father could divide his property among his sons during his life-time.

Reason (R) : Mitakshara did not recognize a son’s right of ownership in ancestral property by birth.

Select your answer from the code given below :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

22. Who was the Chaiman of the National Planning Committee set-up by the Indian National Congress in 1938 ?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(d) J.B. Kriplani

23. An inscription of A.D. 1121 refers to a medical institute teaching the Charaka-Samhita and Astanga-hridaya of Vabhata at :

(a) Varanasi

(b) Nalanda

(d) Tiruvaduturrai

24. The capital of the Sharqi dynasty, during the 15-16th centuries was

(a) Zafrabad

(b) Kara-Manikpur

(d) Jaunpur

25. Where did the Rashtrakula King Dantidurga perform the Hiranya-garbha Mahadana ceremony ?

(a) Manyakhet

(b) Girnar

(d) Nasik

26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists :

List-I List-II

(Writers) (Patrons)

A. Hemadri 1. Parmara Bhoja

B. Dhanapala 2. Gahadavala Jayachandra

C. Srihara 3. Pratihara Mahendrapala

D. Rajasekhara 4. Yadava Mahadeva

Codes :

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 3 4 1

(d) 4 1 2 3

27. which one of the following temples had celebrated a thousands years of its building in the year 2010 ?

(a) Kailash Temple at Ellora.

(b) Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur.

(d) kandariya Mahadeva Temple at Khajuraho.

28. Who among the following believed in the theory of ‘Bheda-bhed’ ?

(a) Vallabhacharya

(b) Nimbarakacharya

(d) Ramanujacharya

29. Marco Polo laments the waste of a great part of Indian wealth in the import of

(a) Gold

(b) Silver

(d) Wine

30. Which Sultan of Delhi founded and built the Fort of Siri ?

(a) Iltumish

(b) Balban

(d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

31. Which one of the following Sufi saint of the Chistiya Order was called the ‘Chirag-i-Dehalvi’?

(a) Sheikh Fariduddin

(b) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya

(d) Sheikh Salim Chisti

32. The ruler of Bundel-Khand defeated by Qutbuddin Aibak was

(a) Parmardi Deva

(b) Lakshman Sen

(d) Malayvarma Deva

33. Who among the following Amirs (nobles) was the one publicity flogged by the orders of Sultan Balban ?

(a) Haibat Khan

(b) Imaduddin Raihan

(d) Malik Baqbaq

34. Who among the following rulers constructed the Martanda Temple in Kashmir?

(a) Tarapida

(b) Lalitaditya

(d) Didda

35. Which one of the following is not true about Mohammad-bin-Tuglaq ?

(a) He played ‘Holi’ publicity

(b) He drank Ganges water

(c ) He appointed Hindu Amirs

(d) He did not visit a Temple

36. Who was the Governor of Kara-Manikpur to have revolated against Sultan jalaluddin Firoz Khalji ?

(a) Arkali Khan

(b) Almas Beg

(d) Malik Chajju

37. Given below are two statements :

Assertion (A) : Bahlol Lodi’s kingship theory was based on kinship.

Reason (R) : He emulated the Turkish Sultans.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

38. Which Sultan of Delhi made a rule that, in any given year, the land-revenue can be increased only nominally viz. one-tenth or one-eleventh of the fixed revenue ?

(a) Balban

(b) Alauddin Khalji

(d) Firoz Shah Tuglaq

39. Who among the following were called ‘Neo-Muslims’ during the reign of Jalaluddin Firoz Khalji ?

(a) Mongols

(b) Indian Muslims

(d) Abyssinians

40. Who among the following invitees of Akbar to the Ibadat-Khana was not a Jain monk ?

(a) Har Vijai Suri

(b) Meher Ji Rama

(d) Shanti Chandra

41. ‘Month-scale’ in the Mansabdari system was introduced by

(a) Jahangir

(b) Shahjahan

(d) None of the above

42. Who among the following Englishmen was well-versed in the Turkish language, received a Mansab of 400 and title of ‘English Khan; or ‘Firangi Khan’ ?

(a) Fitch

(b) Mildenhall

(d) Sir Thomas Roe

43. Fawaid ul Fuwad is the record of the conversation of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya. It was compiled by

(a) Amir Hasan Sizzi

(b) Amir Khusru Dehlavi

(d) Hasan Nizami

44. Which one of the following pairs is an incorrect pair ?

(a) Diwan-i-Riyasat : Alauddin Khalji

(b) Diwan-i-Bandgan : Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

(d) Diwan-i-Khairat : Firoz Shah Tughlaq

45. Which modern historian has described Satnami Rebellion during the reign of Aurangzeb as ‘Hindu Reaction’ against his religious politicies ?

(a) R.C. Majumdar

(b) Ishwari Prasad

(d) Jadu Nath Sarkar

46. What was ‘Jihat’ in the Mughal land-revenue administrative terminology ?

(a) A cess over fixed rates

(b) A Religious-tax

(d) None of the above

47. Which Fort ceded by Shivaji to the Mughals by the terms of the ‘treaty of Purandhar’ (1665 A.D.) could not be won back by Shivaji ?

(a) purandhar

(b) Mahuli

(d) Shivneri

48. Who was the ‘Peshwa’ during Shivaji’s reign ?

(a) Moropant Pingley

(b) Dattaji Trimbak

(d) Ramchandra Nilkanth

49. In which one of the following expeditions did Ahmad Shah Abdali ravage Mathura-Vrindaban alongwith Delhi ?

(a) First, 1748 A.D.

(b) Second, 1749 A.D.

(d) Fourth, 1756 A.D.

50. What was the percentage (of the total revenue charged) of the extra tax charged by Sher Shah for the use of general welfare in calamities and emergencies ?

(a) 7.5%

(b) 5.0%

(d) 1.5%

51. Roshaniya movement in India during the 16th century was started by

(a) Miyan Bayazid Ansari

(b) Akhund Darwiza

(d) None of the above

52. Which one of the following is not true about the Mughal Mansabdari System ?

(a) That, there were thirty-three (33) divisions of Mansabdars.

(b) That, they (Mansabdars) could be assigned ‘Mashrut’ or conditional Rank.

(d) That, the Masabdars were hereditary officers.

53. The preachings of which medieval saint are collected in ‘Abhangas’ ?

(a) Dadu

(b) Kabir

(d) Tukaram

54. Who is the writer of ‘Kitab-ul-Yamini’ ?

(a) Al-Beruni

(b) Utbi

(d) Barani

55. Which one of the following was not true about the terms of the ‘treaty of Chittor’ (1615 A.D.) ?

(a) Jahangir did not want to destroy old Rajput dynasties.

(b) Mewar, including Chittor were restored to the Rana.

(d) Rana had to be personally present at the Mughal Court.

56. Whom did Ahmad Shah Abdali proclaim the Emperor of India before leaving after his victory in the third Battle of Panipat ?

(a) Ahmad Shah

(b) Shahjahan III

(d) Akbar II

57. Consider these two statements :

Assertion (A) : Akbar constructed the Buland-darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri.

Reason (R) : Akbar desire to commemorate his victory.

In the context of these two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

58. A figure of Mother Goddess made of bone from the upper Palaeolithic context was discovered from

(a) Godavari Valley

(b) Narmada Valley

(d) Bealn Valley

59. Which one of the followings is the largest Harappan site in India ?

(a) Banawali

(b) Kalibangan

(d) Rakhigarhi

60. The city is Vijaynagar was located on the banks of the river

(a) Wain-Ganga

(b) Kaveri

(d) Krishna

61. The game of ‘dice’ was a part of the ritual of

(a) Agnistoma

(b) Aswamegha

(d) Vajapeya

62. kashful Mahjoob a Persian text on Sufism was compiled at Lahore by

(a) hazrat Miyan Mir Qadiri

(b) Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi

(d) Shaikh Ali Hujwiri

63. Arrange in a Chronological order the following Western writers, whose works are important source for Ancient Indian Culture history :

1. Nearchus

2. Pliny

3. Strabo

4. Ptolemy

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4

(b) 1, 3, 2, 4

(d) 2, 4, 1, 3

64. Arrange the following astronomers in their correct chronological order :

1. Aryabhatta

2. Brahmagupta

3. Lagadh

4. Varahamihira

Choose your answer from the code given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4

(b) 2, 1, 4, 3

(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

65. Mahadevi movement in India was started by

(a) Abdullah Niyazi

(b) Shaikh ‘Alai’

(d) Saiyad Muhammad Jaunpuri

66. In which type of marriage payment of bride-price was a condition ?

(a) Aasura

(b) Brahma

(d) Gandharva

67. Which of the following samhitas of Yajurveda contains only hymns and no prose ?

(a) Katha

(b) Maitrayaviya

(d) Vajasaneyi

68. The Rivers Ganga and Yamuna are mentioned for the first time in

(a) Rig Veda

(b) Atharvaveda

(d) Chhandogya Upanishad

69. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : Gautam Buddha spent the maximum number of rainy seasons in Sravasti.

Reason (R) : Prasenjit, the ruler of Kosala and Gautam Buddha were of the same age.

Select the correct answer from the code given below ?

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

70. The book History of India as told by its own Historians [in eight volumes]was compiled by

(a) Alexander Cunningham

(b) Mantogomery Martin & Francis Buchnam

(d) H.M. Elliott & John Dawnson

71. Who among the following was considerd to be first successor for ‘Stridhana’ ?

(a) Husband

(b) Son

(d) Daughter-in-Law

72. ‘tevaram’ is a collection of hymns of Savita Saints named

1. Appar

2. Sambandar

3. Sundarar

4. Manikkavachakar

Indicate your answer from the code given below :

(a) 1 Only

(b) 1 and 2 Only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

73. In the scheme of Yajna valkya, who among the following occupies the first place in the succession of a man, who dies without a son ?

(a) Daughter

(b) Brother

(d) Father

74. Which of the following Mauryan Pillars was/were surmounted by Lion-Capital ?

1. Sarnath Pillar

2. Sanchi Pillar

3. Koluha Pillar

4. Lauriya Nanddagarh Pillar

Choose your Correct answer from the code given below :

(a) 1 Only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

75. The Valabhi era is identical with

(a) Vikram era

(b) Saka era

(d) Harsha era

76. For whom did Ashoka got excavated caves in the Barabar Hill of Gaya District ?

(a) Ajivakas

(b) Mahasanghikas

(d) Theravadias

77. In which royal family, the men usually followed the Brahmanical religion and women were Buddhists ?

(a) Ikshvakus

(b) Lichchhavis

(d) Yaudheyas

78. The earliest Jain bronzes were discovered from

(a) Chausa

(b) Nalanda

(d) Udaigiri

79. As the find-spots suggest, the “bent-bar” coins were prevalent in the region of

(a) Gandhara

(b) matsya

(d) Kalinga

80. Match List-I with List-II and chose the correct answer from the code given below the lists :

List-I List-II

(Acharya) (Religion)

A. Haribhadra 1. Buddhism

B. Lakulisa 2. Jainism

C. Nathamuni 3. Saivism

D. Vasubandhu 4. Vaishnavism

Codes :

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 3 4 1

(d) 4 1 2 3

81. In which of the following coins-series the symbols on he reverse, generally, match with the names of the King on the obverse ?

(a) Kuninda

(b) Malava

(d) Panchala

82. Which of the following ports were situated on the east coast of south India ?

1. Kaveripattanam

2. Korkai

3. Musiri

4. Tondi

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3

83. The guild, which migrated from Lata to Daspura during the time of Kumargupta traded in

(a) Jewels

(b) Horses

(d) Silken Textile

84. Which one of the following is an exampl of ‘Anuloma’ type of marriage ?

(a) A Brahmana boy marrying a Kshatriya girl

(b) A Kshatriya girl marrying a Kshatriya boy.

(d) A Vaisya girl marrying a Kshatriya boy.

85. Who among the following is famous for his commentary on the ‘Manu-Smriti’ ?

(a) Apararka

(b) Medhaithi

(d) Visvarupa

86. Harsha’s military ezpansion in the Deccan was checked by

(a) Mahendra Varman

(b) Dantidurga

(d) Pulkesin II

87. The first meeting of Ghosal with Mahavir Swami was held at

(a) Champa

(b) Vaishali

(d) Nalanda

88. The Book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India was written by

(a) Surendra Nath Banerjee

(b) A.O. Hume

(d) R.P. Dutt

89. Sanghao Cave belongs to

(a) Lower Palaeolithic

(b) Middle Palaeolithic

(d) Chalcolithic

90. The Gupta ruler who defeated the Hunas was

(a) Samundragupta

(b) Chandragupta II

(d) Skandgupta

91. Which of the following rock-shelters has yielded evidence of human burials ?

(a) Morahana

(b) lekhakhia Rock Shelter I

(d) Ghagharia

92. In the Jain sect, ‘Santhara’ stands for

(a) A Ritual for fasting unto death

(b) Assembly

(d) A noble path

93. In which inscription,is it mentioned that Pushyamitra had performed two horses sacrifices ?

(a) Hathigumpha inscription of Kharvela

(b) Ayodhya inscription of Dhanadeva

(d) Reh inscription of Fatehpur

94. Satkarni of the Hathigumpha inscription can be identified with

(a) Satkarni I

(b) Gautamiputra Satkarni

(d) Yagyasri Satkarni

95. The doctrine of ‘Pratitya Samutpad’ is associated with

(a) Jainism

(b) Buddhism

(d) Charvaka

96. Guru Granth Saheb, in its present form, was compiled by

(a) Guru Nanak Dev

(b) Guru Arjan Dev

(d) None of the above

97. Which inscription of the Gupta period gives details regarding the sale of land ?

(a) Junagarh Inscription

(b) Bhitari Pillar Inscription

(d) Damodarpur Copper Plate

98. Who was the first ruler of the Gupta Dynasty to assume the title of ‘Maharajadhiraja’ ?

(a) Srigupta

(b) Chandragupta I

(d) Chandragupta II

99. Who was the architect of the ‘Communal Award’ ?

(a) Lord Linlithgow

(b) Lord Reading

(d) Ramsay Macdonald

100. Who addressed whom as the spiritual father of Indian Nationalism ?

(a) Lala Hardayal-Tilak

(b) Subhash Chandra Bose-Swami Vivekanand

(d) Tilak-Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya

101. Who was the author of the book ‘Gulamgiri’ ?

(a) Jyotiba Phule

(b) Bhimrao Ambedkar

(d) None of the above

102. By which treatly did the English East India Company gain the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar and Orrisa ?

(a) Treaty of Murshidabad

(b) Treaty of Hoogly

(d) Treaty of Hariharpur

103. Who among the following was the Railway Minister during the Interim Government (1946)?

(a) Baldev Singh

(b) T.T. Chundrigar

(d) Abdul rab Nistar

104. By which of the following Acts was the ‘Board of Control’ created ?

(a) Regulating Act, 1773

(b) Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(d) Charter Act, 1833

105. The propounder of ‘Filtration Theory’ in India’s education policy was

(a) C. Wood

(b) Macaulay

(d) Cornwallis

106. During the tenure of which Governor-General was the ‘Ancient Monuments’ Preservation Act’ passed ?

(a) Lord Minto

(b) Lord Linlithgo

(d) Lord Curzon

107. Who among the following published the translations of Vedic texts in Bangala (Bengali) language?

(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(b) Devendranath Tagore

(d) None of the above

108. Vinobha Bhave was chosen as the first ‘Satyagarh’. Who was the second ?

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(b) Pandit Jawahar lal Nehru

(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

109. Who founded the ‘All India Muslim League’ ?

(a) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

(b) Sir Mohammad Iqbal

(d) Nawab Salimullah Khan

110. When did the Indian National Congress accept the theory of ‘Drain of Wealth’ ?

(a) In 1896

(b) In 1902

(d) In 1935

111. On the suggestion of Rabindranath Tagore the date of Partition of Bengal (October 16, 1905) was celebrated as

(a) Solidarity Day

(b) Rakshabandhan Day

(d) Brotherhood Day

112. Who among the following said, “India has to unite and conquer the whole world once again with its might. ”?

(a) Swami Dayanand

(b) Ram Krishna Param Hansha

(d) Mrs. Annie Besant

113. The President of the Congress session at Madras in 1927, where the Indian National Congress had adopted the Resolution to boycott ‘Simon Commission’ was

(a) C.R. Das

(b) Motilal Nehru

(d) Dr. M.A. Ansari

114. U.P. Zamindari Abolution of Land Reform Act was implemented from the following date :

(a) 1st July, 1952

(b) 15th August, 1947

(d) 1st July, 1951

115. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

(a) Neville Maxwell : India China War

(b) D.R. Mankekar : Witness to an Era

(d) B.M. Kaul : Guilty Men of 1962

116. The first newspaper published in India was

(a) The Bengal Gazette

(b) The Culcutta Gazette

(d) The Indian Gazette

117. Which one of the following statements is not about the first Summit if the Non-Aligned Movement ?

(a) it was held at Cairo.

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Sukarno participated in it.

(d) Consolidation of world peace and security were discussed in it.

118. Consider the following events related to India’s freedom struggle and find their correct chronological order from the codes given below the events :

1. Bomb-hurling at the Central Legislative Assembly Hall in Delhi

2. Martyrdom of Jatin Das.

3. Martyrdom of Bhagat Singh.

4. Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress (1931).

119. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the book ‘Indian Struggle (1920-1942)’ written by Subhash Chandra Bose ?

(a) It covers the period of India’s struggle for freedom between 1920 and 1942.

(b) it comprises the Haripura (1938) and Tripuri (1939) Sessions.

(d) It depicts the comprehensive history of the Peasant Movement in India.

Codes :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 4, 3, 2 and 1

(d) 2, 1, 3 and 4

120. Who among the following chose ‘Constituent Assembly for India’ as a subject of his convocation address deleiverd at Banaras Hindu University and was strongly against a Constituent Assembly Framing the future Constitution of India ?

(a) Sir Maurice Gwyer

(b) K.M. Munshi

(d) None of the above

Right to Information (RTI) Act: A means of Transparent and Accountable Governance

After seeking inspiration from the spirit of the Indian constitution and some exclusive practices in the western world, Union government had framed and enacted the right of information (RTI)act in 2005 to give an exclusive right to the citizen to seek the information from the government to make governance transparent accountable and effective.

Governance in India has deteriorated because of lack of transparency and accountability in the system.

RTI Act has played an important role to create transparency in the governance because it has created awareness amongst the people regarding their right to participate and expose the system.

The major objectives of the RTI Act are:

1) Greater Transparency in functioning of public authorities.

2) Improvement in accountability and performance of the Government.

3) Promotion of partnership between citizens and the Government in decision making process; and

4) Reduction in corruption in the Government departments.

All these parameters are critical elements of good governance. An attempt is therefore made below to examine the extent to which the RTI has been successful in influencing the above factors in desirable direction.

1). Greater Transparency

With a view to ensuring maximum disclosure of information regarding government rules, regulations and decisions, every public authority is mandated to `maintain all its records duly catalogued and indexed in a manner and the form which facilitates the right to information under the Act’.

The public authorities are therefore required to make pro-active disclosures through publication of relevant documents. Besides, the public authorities are also required to ‘provide as much information suo motu to the public at regular intervals through various means of communication, including internet,so that the public have minimum resort to the use of this Act to obtain information’.

In compliance of the above provisions of the Act, all the levels of the Government – the Centre, States and Local Bodies, including Village level Panchayats – have put the records in public domain, through publications as well as internet in the regional languages. And, to facilitate the access to information, a citizen has the right to:

(i) inspection of work, documents, records;

(ii) taking notes, extracts or certified copies of the documents or records;

(iii) taking certified sample of material; and

iv) Obtaining information in electronic form, if available.

Thus, all the public authorities have duly placed the information in public domain and that a citizen has the right to observe as to what is going on inside an organization. In the cases where the information sought for are not provided within the stipulated period of 30 days or the information furnished are incomplete, misleading or incorrect, a requester is free to file a complaint or appeal before the Information Commission (IC), for necessary directions to the parties as per the provisions of the Act.

The Commission has the mandate, inter-alia, to impose penalty and/or to recommend disciplinary action against the information providers, if held responsible for obstructing the free flow of information. Accordingly, information seekers and the NGOs have put pressure on the public authorities for promoting the culture of openness in functioning of the Government. A large number of PIOs have already been fined for violation of the provisions of the Act, which has, in effect, created conditions for providing information to a requester. Due to perceived benefits of transparency and accountability, RTI applications have annually increased by 8 to 10 times.

There is thus massive use of the right to know. Of the millions of applications for information, less than 5 per cent have been denied information under various exemption categories. In effect, thus, there is greater transparency than before in the working of the public bodies. In a large number of cases, the Commission has ordered for providing the details of the decision-making processes, which include ‘file nothings, cabinet papers, records of recruitment, selection and promotion of staff, documents pertaining to tender processes and procurement procedure, the lists of beneficiaries of the Government’s subsidized schemes, such as, food grains supplied through ration shops, water and electricity, domestic gas, educational and health facilities, shelter for poor, muster rolls under employment guarantee schemes, etc. The disclosure of vital information, such as above, has thus resulted in checking corrupt practices in delivery of services and ensuring the reach of entitlements to the poor. The disclosure of information relating to use of funds allocated to rural employment guarantee scheme, MLA/MP local area funds, etc. have contributed to advocacy in favour or against the policies and/or political leaderships.

2) Greater Accountability

The RTI provides people with the mechanism to access information, whichnthey can use to hold the government to account or to seek explanation as to why decisions have been taken, by whom and with what consequences or outcomes. In addition, every public authority is required ‘to provide reasons for its administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to the affected persons’ u/s 4(1)(d) of the Act. Until the implementation of the RTI Act, it was not possible for an ordinary persons to seek the details of a decision making process, which was found most often, as ineffective in terms of its outcome. It was, therefore, not possible to hold a free and frank discussion on issues of common concern of people or to fix the responsibility for any action. Such an era of darkness in policy planning is over.

The information regime has, in effect, created conducive conditions for everyone to have a better understanding of how the government works or how a particular decision was reached. Such a chance given to people empowers them to make appropriate choice of leadership and the policies that affect them. This has begun to happen with salutary effects on delivery of socioeconomic services, particularly for the poor.

For instance, being fully aware that the records pertaining to the decision making process, including file nothings, are required to be put in public domain, the concerned officials at all levels objectively record the reasons for the observations made by them. Attempts are also made to effectively implement the programme as the relevant details are proactively disclosed. In effect, thus, the quality of decision making and delivery of services have duly improved. Also, due to effective implementation of the flagship programmes for alleviation of wide-spread poverty, the mis-match between the planned targets and actual realization has been minimized. Specific mention may be made about the following schemes, which have been provided necessary financial wherewithal as well as administrative support by the Centre and the States for effective implementation of the programmes.

• National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (Assured jobs),

• Sarwa Shiksha Abhiyan (Education for all)

• Mid-day Meal Scheme

• Drinking Water Mission

• Integrated Child Development Services

• National Rural Health Mission

• Bharat Nirman (Rural Infrastructure, mainly road, electricity, drinking water, sanitation etc.)

• Indira Avas Yogna (Shelter for poor)

All these programmes and several other similar schemes covered under the MP/MLA Local Area Development Fund aim at providing the basic human needs for maintaining a decent standard of living. These schemes, moreover, enable them to build their strengths and abilities to realize their socioeconomic objectives.

Even before the enactment of the right to information, similar programmes were implemented but the achievements were always below the general expectations. Reason? Lack of legal right to know and to scrutinize the public action and to question the authority. With empowered citizens and free flow of information, there is significant quantitative and qualitative improvement in the delivery of services and realization of benefits of the programmes designed and implemented for the poor.

For instance, disclosure of information relating to:

i) Attendance of staff in schools has helped in checking teachers’ absenteeism and students’ drop out;

ii) Attendance of doctors and nurses at primary health centers has led to improvement in health care facilities in rural areas;

iii) the details of supplies and distribution of food grains through ration shops has assured the reach of entitlements to the beneficiaries;

iv) the supply and demand for petroleum products, such as, domestic gas has reduced black marketing;

v) muster rolls and beneficiary of employment guarantee schemes has exposed corruption and ensured effective delivery of services to the poor; and

vi) Allotment of retail outlets (petrol pumps) and agencies for distribution of LPG gas has ensured fair play and objective decisions, as reflected from substantial reduction in litigation cases in the matter.

As a result of increased Government’s accountability in delivery of services, rural to urban migration has, of late, decelerated, as widely reported in the media. This is also corroborated by the findings of a national level survey (forthcoming), jointly conducted by the Transparency International and the Centre for Media Studies.

The survey has revealed that in the opinions of 40 per cent of respondent (all below the poverty line), corruption and malpractices in implementation of poverty alleviation programmes have declined due to RTI induced accountability of the Government and its functionaries at various levels. RTI route has generally been followed by a large number of people for resolving disputes between the parties on the issues pertaining to the decisions on administrative and commercial matters. Disclosure of information regarding the process of decision making or the grounds for action taken has helped resolve disputes on such issues as claim of refund of taxes paid by the individuals/companies, settlement of insurance claims, payment of dues of contractors, process of sanction and recovery of loans, etc.

Since a reply is to be given within thirty days, disputes have been resolved faster. A large number of grievances pertaining to service matters, mainly promotion and pension benefits have also been redressed due to openness and promptness in taking action on requests made under the RTI.

As a result, filing of appeals in the Courts has substantially declined, as reported, for instance, by the Oil Companies, which grant dealerships for distribution of petroleum products. The Courts have also advised the petitioners to obtain information under the RTI before filing the cases before the Courts. It thus shows a strong and positive impact of RTI on transparency and accountability of the Government.

3) Promotion of Citizen-Government Partnership

The RTI Act provides a framework for promotion of citizen-government partnership in carrying out the programmes for welfare of the people. The principle of partnership is derived from the fact that people are not only the ultimate beneficiaries of development, but also the agents of development.

The stakeholders’ participation leads to better projects and more dynamic development.

Under the RTI regime, citizens’ participation has been promoted through (a) access to information and involvement of affected groups/communities in design and implementation of projects; and (b) empowerment of local government bodies at village level through the involvement and cooperation with NGOs/self help groups.

The pro-active disclosure of information has enabled the beneficiaries, mainly through NGOs, to assume a central role in design and execution of projects.RTI has instilled a wider sense of ownership in the development activities. Besides, access to information has enabled the people to participate in economic and political processes through a dialogue between people and the government officials or public campaign on public policies.

For instance, information obtained under RTI, in respect of utilization of funds allocated under rural employment guarantee scheme, has been used by NGOs for campaign in favour or against the political leaders during recent elections in some States, with a desirable impact on political process. Almost all the welfare projects, particularly at Village and Panchayat levels, are being designed and developed in cooperation and support with the NGOs or affected persons, with a view to raising the satisfaction level of people.

4) Reduction in Corruption

Lack of transparency and accountability encourage the government officials to indulge in corrupt practices, which result in lower investments due to mis-use or diversion of funds for private purposes. As a result, the government’s social spending yields no worthwhile benefits, because, for instance, the teachers do not teach, doctors and nurses do not attend health centres, ration card holders do not receive subsidized food grains and the promised jobs are not provided to the people. In the process, it perpetuates poverty and harms the poor. It creates an environment of distrust between the people and the government, which impinge upon the development and jeopardize democratic governance.

Under the RTI regime, there is unprecedented transparency in the working of public departments. As a result, there is better understanding of the decision making process and greater accountability of government. This has led to reduction in corruption in the country as evident from the following:

i) The Transparency International (TI) has consecutively reported in the last two years that perceived corruption in India (a score of 3.5 out of 10)has declined at the rate of about 15-20 per cent per year, due mainly to the implementation of the RTI Act.

ii) The Centre for Media Studies in collaboration with TI has recently accomplished an all India survey study (un-published) of the poor below the poverty line. The views of the poor have been elicited in respect of all the flagship programmes that have been implemented for alleviation of poverty. At least 40 per cent of the respondents have reported that corruption has declined.

iii) It has also been observed that wherever NGOs are actively involved in the development activities, the perceived corruption is abysmally low. (Please see Case Studies pertaining to RTI and its impact on reduction in corruption)

Tuesday, October 25, 2011

Jharkhand State civil services on reform path,BDO and CO will be recalled from field

Ranchi: Following the footsteps of Bihar, Jharkhand government is pushing the bureaucratic reform.The government is in advance stage to overhaul the policy regarding state civil service officers.

Unlike the existing process of giving them first posting as the blocks or circles as Block Development Officers (BDOs) and Circle Officers (COs), the newly recruited civil servant would be positioned in the sub-division or the district headquarters on the posts, which hitherto cost general 10-12 years of service.

This is an important component of the upcoming reforms the state government is likely to implement in coming months.

The proposal, advocated by Advisor to the Governor Vijay Shankar Dubey, envisages creation of a premium service comprising officers from administrative, police, engineering, health and education sectors.

Vijay Shankar Dubey, was the first Chief Secretary of the state, has headed the Bihar Administrative Reforms commission earlier.

On his recommendation, Bihar government has created its premium service cadre and recalled all the BDOs and COs from the field.

Same practice of appointing State civil service officers at the sub-division or district levels is being followed in Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Delhi, and lately Bihar.

“And it has brought in perceptible change in the governance of the respective states with their delivery system showing remarkable results at the ground level,” Dubey said.

The officers of the premium service cadres would have upgrades pay scales, matching almost those of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officers.

With regard to the posting of officers in blocks and circles, the reform proposal envisages creation of two new service cadres as it has done in Bihar—development and revenue services.

The new system of posting of the Jharkhand administrative service (JAS) officers would also allow them to get promoted up to the Secretary ranks. In the existing set up, they complete their service span by reaching upto the post of Joint Secretary or Additional Secretary.

Dubey said that draft proposal of the reforms has finalized

Pages

Wednesday, October 26, 2011

UPPSC 2011-QUESTION PAPER: Geography

UPPCS 2011 Prelims Indian History Question Paper

Right to Information (RTI) Act: A means of Transparent and Accountable Governance

Tuesday, October 25, 2011

Jharkhand State civil services on reform path,BDO and CO will be recalled from field