Wednesday, October 26, 2011

UPPSC-QUESTION PAPER -2011-POLITICAL SCIENCE




1. Which of the following institutions does not deal with pulic grievances?
(a) Lok Ayukta 
(b) Supreme Court 
(c) High Court 
(d) Planning Commission

2. The Khilafat Movement was started by whom of the following?
(a) Ali Brothers
(b) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan 
(c) Mohammad Iqbal 
(d) Zakir Hussain

3. Which one of the following articles of Indian Constitution empowers the President to appoint comptroller and Auditor General of India?
(a) Article 147
(b) Article 148
(c) Article 149
(d) Article 151

4. The seat of a member of Parliament can be declared vacant if the member is absent from the house without permission for a period of
(a) Three year
(b) Two year
(c) One year
(d) Sixty days

5. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty under the Indian Constitution?
(a) To protect monuments of national importance 
(b) To safeguard public property 
(c) To develop scientific temper 
(d) To uphold the unity and integrity of the nation

6. The Quorum for the meeting of the Legislative Assembly is
(a) One tenth of the total membership or ten members, whichever is greater 
(b) Not less than twelve members
(c) Not less than twenty members 
(d) Number determined by the speaker

7. The Chief Election Commissioner of Indian can be removed from office by
(a) President of India
(b) Council of Ministers 
(c) Supreme Court 
(d) Procedure laid down for the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court

8. Financial distribution of taxes between Union and States takes place on the basis of recommendations of which of the following bodies?
(a) The Planning Commission 
(b) The National Devlopment Council 
(c) The Finance Commission 
(d) The National Advisory Council

9. Which one of the following pairs is not properly matched?
(a) 42nd Amendment – Fundamental Duties
(b) 52nd Amendment – Anti Defection Law 
(c) 73rd Amendment – Panchayati Raj
(d) 84th Amendment – Center-State Relations

10.  In case of decision on the question as to disqualification of members of either house of the Parliament, the final decision is taken by
(a) The Supreme Court 
(b) The Election Commission 
(c) The President after obtaining the opinion of the Election Commission 
(d) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court

11. Who among the following holda the view that the State is prior to individual?
(a) Plato 
(b) Aristotle 
(c) Hobbes 
(d) Hegel

12.  Who among the following defined the States as ‘a politically organized people of a definite territory’ ?
(a) Garner 
(b) Bluntschli 
(c) Laski 
(d) Wilson

13. The statement the ‘the State is a political super-structure on Economic base’ is associated with which of the following?
(a) Social Contract Theory 
(b) Organic Theory  
(c) Evolutionary Theory
(d) Marxist Theory

14. Who among the following was first to propound the concept of popular sovereigntly?
(a) Hobbes 
(b) Locke
(c) Rousseau 
(d) Mill

15. Who among the following was the first exponent of organic theory of state?
(a) Plato 
(b) Spencer 
(c) Machiavelli
(d) Marx

16. Which one of the following does not pertain to Marxism?
(a) Materialistic interpretation of history
(b) Class struggle 
(c) Surplus value 
(d) Laissez Faire

17. The term ‘Socialism’ was first used by whom of the following?
(a) Lenin 
(b) Robert Owen 
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Hegel

18. Who among the following said, ‘State is the March of God on Earth’?
(a) Plato
(b) Kant 
(c) Hegel 
(d) Green

19. Who among the following developed the concept of external sovereigntly?
(a) Grotious 
(b) Oppenheim 
(c) John Austin 
(d) Bodin

20. Who among the following said : ‘Law is the command of the Sovereign’ ?
(a) Austin 
(b) Laski
(c) Bentham 
(d) Aquinas

21. Who made the statement, ‘A modern State without a constitution is not a State but a regime of anarchy’?
(a) Lord Bryce
(b) A.V. Diecy 
(c) Jellinek 
(d) G.B. Shaw

22. General Will of Rousseau is
(a) Majority will 
(b) Will of all 
(c) Minority will 
(d) Total of real will of all

23. Who among the following proposed the monistic theory of sovereignty?
(a) Austin 
(b) Locke 
(c) Aquinas 
(d) Plato

24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I                 List-II
A. James I        1. The Social Contract 
B. Locke           2. The Law of Free Monarchies 
C. Rousseau    3. The Nature of  State 
D. Willoughby  4. Two treatises on Civil Government
Code:
      A    B    C    D
(a) 1    3    2    4
(b) 1    2    3    4
(c) 1    4    2    3
(d) 2    4    1    3

25. Who said, ‘Welfare State is a compromise between communism on the one side and unbridled individualism on the other.’?
(a) Abraham 
(b) Kant 
(c) Hobman 
(d) Rousseau

26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below:
List-I                List-II
A. J.S. Mill        1. Lecture on principles of political obligation  
B. T.H. Green   2. A Theory of Justice  
C. H.J. Laski     3. Grammer of Politics  
D. John Rawls  4. On Liberty
Code:
      A    B    C    D
(a) 4    1    3    2
(b) 1    2    3    4
(c) 4    3    2    1
(d) 1    3    4    2

27. The basic element of the theory of Liberalism is
(a) Individual freedom 
(b) Mixed economy
(c) Secularism 
(d) Equality

28. Who among the following considers ‘Right to Self Protection’ as a Natural Right of the individual?
(a) Plato 
(b) Bentham 
(c) Hobbes 
(d) Burke

29. Who among the following has distinguished between legal and Political sovereignty?
(a) Bentham 
(b) Dicey 
(c) Hume 
(d) Mill

30. Who is called the father of Indian Renaissance?
(a) Ravindra Nath Tagore 
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 
(d) S.N. Banerjee

31. Which one of the following political theories considers the State as a necessary evil?
(a) Socialism 
(b) Anarchism 
(c) Fascism 
(d) Individualism

32. Which of the following is the most accepted theory of the origin of the State?
(a) Force theory 
(b) Divine origin theory 
(c) Social contact theory 
(d) Evolutionary theory

33. The Pluralistic theory of sovereignty was first propounded by
(a) Laski 
(b) Von Gierke 
(c) Bodin 
(d) Maclver

34. Which one of the following did not influence the evolution of the State?
(a) Political consciousness 
(b) Political parties 
(c) Kinship 
(d) Religion

35. ‘Political Liberty in the absence of economic equality is a mere myth’. Who said it?
(a) G.D.H. Cole
(b) H.J. Laski 
(c) J.S. Mill 
(d) Ernest Barker

36. Which one of the following books is not written by Machiavelli?
(a) The Prince 
(b) The Discourses
(c) The Art of War 
(d) Behemoth
37. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Hobbes – Lectures on Jurisprudence 
(b) Aristotle – Republic 
(c) James Bryce – Modern Democracies 
(d) Robert A. Dahl – Grammar of Politics

38. Who among the following propounded the concept of trusteeship?
(a) M.N. Roy 
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) Mahatma Gandhi 
(d) Gokhale

39. Which one of the following is not an agent of public opinion?
(a) Press 
(b) Judiciary 
(c) Political parties 
(d) TV and Radio

40. In 1936, who said, ‘there is nothing as Gandhism’?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi 
(b) Maulana Azad 
(c) Tagore 
(d) Nehru

41. The modern idea which has made democracy feasible for large and complex societies is
(a) Right 
(b) Decentralization 
(c) Federalism 
(d) Representation

42. Public opinion necessarily means
(a) Opinion based on reason 
(b) Opinion of the majority 
(c) Opinion which aims at the welfare of the whole community 
(d) Opinion of all concerned

43. Concept of negative liberty emphasizes on which one of the following?
(a) Equality 
(b) Autonomy 
(c) Absence of interference 
(d) Freedom of choice

44. Which one of the following did not constitute the concept od Swaraj for Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Self rule 
(b) Pursuit of good of all 
(c) Rule of morally good individual 
(d) Rule of Law

45. Who among the following said, Liberty and equality are complimentary to each other’?
(a) Maclver 
(b) Machiavelli 
(c) Lord Acton  
(d) D. Tocquvelli

46. Who among the following is the author of ‘The Modern State’?
(a) Barker 
(b) Maclver 
(c) Weber 
(d) Laski

47. Who among the following is considered as neo-liberal?
(a) Maclver
(b) Laski
(c) Havek 
(d) Green

48. Deconstructionism is associated with which of the following?
(a) Nozik 
(b) Derrida 
(c) Popper 
(d) Habermas

49. The system of proportional representation as an electoral mechanism ensures
(a) Representation of minorities 
(b) Rule of majority 
(c) Stability in government 
(d) Common political thinking

50. ‘Right  are those conditions of life without which no man can seek to be himself of his best.’ Who said this?
(a) Aristotle 
(b) Jennings 
(c) Maitland 
(d) Laski

51. Which one of the following is not consistent with the Marxian view regarding the Nature of the State?
(a) State does not stand for the good of all.
(b) State stands for the good of all.
(c) State promotes the interests of the few at the cost of many.
(d) State is mutual insurance pact of bouregeois class.

52. Demand for ‘equal pay for equal work’ is a
(a) Legal demand for economic right 
(b) Political demand for economic right 
(c) Economic demand for legal right 
(d) Economic demand for political right

53. Who among the following has not accepted democracy as an ideal form of government?
(a) Hobbes 
(b) Dahl 
(c) Sartori 
(d) Lincoln

54. Which one of the following is not a method of representation of minorities?
(a) Proportional Representation 
(b) List System 
(c) Limited vote system 
(d) Universal suffrage

55. Right to vote is a
(a) Social right 
(b) Personal right 
(c) Political right 
(d) Legal right

56. Who among the following gave an elitist theory of political parties?
(a) Burke 
(b) Sartori 
(c) Mill 
(d) Friedman

57. Given below are two statements, one is labelled Assertion  (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion  (A) : The goal of a political party is to capture ruling power.
Reason (R) : Political parties contest elections
Answer Code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) 
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false 
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

58. Liberty is the positive power of doing or enjoying something worth doing or enjoying’. Who amongst the following propounded this view?
(a) John Stuart Mill 
(b) Herbert spencer
(c) Edmund Bruke 
(d) T.H. Green

59. The view that ‘imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism is associated with which of the following?
(a) Liberalism 
(b) Socialism 
(c) Leninism 
(d) Utilitarianism

60. Who among the following has called political parties ‘Power behind throne’?
(a) Lord Bryce
(b) Herman Finer 
(c) Bluntschli 
(d) H.J. Laski

61. Who among the following has termed Marxism as ‘illusion of the epoch’?
(a) Lord Acton 
(b) Maclver 
(c) Karl Popper 
(d) H.J. Laski

62. Where did the modern party system first evolve?
(a) U.S.A.
(b) France 
(c) England 
(d) Belgium

63. Who among the following has termed pressure group as ‘Anonymous Empire’?
(a) Lucian W. Pye 
(b) Gabriel Almond 
(c) Finer 
(d) F.W. Riggs

64. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The idea of Justice’?
(a) John Locke 
(b) J.S. Mill 
(c) John Rawls 
(d) Amartya Sen

65. Which aspect of justice was emphasized by Greek Philosophers?
(a) Social 
(b) Moral
(c) Legal 
(d) Political

66. Which one of the following is a theory of representation?
(a) Electoral college 
(b) Coalition government 
(c) Common Minimum Programme 
(d) Single Transferable vote

67. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘Public Opinion’?
(a) Betham 
(b) Lipman  
(c) Locke 
(d) Rousseau

68. Which among the following is related to ‘Laissez Faire’ Theory?
(a) Socialism 
(b) Individualism 
(c) Utilitarianism 
(d) Idealism

69. Supremacy of judiciary is found in
(a) U.S.A.
(b) China 
(c) England 
(d) France

70. Which among the following provides for the division of power in federal system?
(a) Legislature 
(b) Constitution 
(c) Supreme Court 
(d) Government

71. In which one of the following systems of government is bicameralism an essential feature?
(a) Presidential system 
(b) Federal system 
(c) Parliamentary system 
(d) Unitary system

72. The concept of constitutional government was first elaborated by whom of the following?
(a) Plato 
(b) Aristotle 
(c) Bodin 
(d) Machiavelli

73. To whom are the members of the cabinet accountable under a Presidential system of government?
(a) The President 
(b) Individually to the legislature 
(c) Collectively to the legislature 
(d) The Electorate

74. Which one of the following countries is regarded as the traditional home of rule of law?
(a) France 
(b) Switzerland 
(c) U.S.A.
(d) England

75. Who among the following said that under the parliamentary form of government ‘bureaucracy thrives under the cloak of ministerial responsibility’?
(a) Herman Finer
(b) Ramsay Muir  
(c) Harold Laski 
(d) Ivor Jennings

76. Which one of the following is the basis of federal government?
(a) Supremacy of the Parliament
(b) Supremacy of Judiciary 
(c) Division of powers between federal and state government
(d) Single citizenship

77. Governments are classified as Parliamentary and Presidential on the basis of which of the following?
(a) Relations between legislature and Executive 
(b) Relations between politicians and civil servants 
(c) Written or unwritten constitutions 
(d) Rigid or flexible constitutions

78. Which of the following statements correctly explains the nature of constitutional government?
(a) Limited Government 
(b) Protection of Right to Freedom of individuals 
(c) Security of the rights of individuals
(d) All the above

79. The cabinet in the parliamentary system is accountable to
(a) The President 
(b) The Prime Minister 
(c) The Council of Ministers 
(d) The Legislature

80. The Presidential system operates on the principle of
(a) Division of powers 
(b) Separation of powers 
(c) Fusion of powers 
(d) Balance of powers

81. The first systematic classification of government was given by
(a) Plato 
(b) Aristotle 
(c) Machiavelli 
(d) Montesequieu

82. Which one of the following is not correct about the Parliamentary system of government?
(a) It emphasizes more on stability than responsibility.
(b) It emphasises more on responsibility than stability.
(c) It emphasises on free and fair elections.
(d) It prefers two party system.

83. In what respect the Indian federal system is similar to that of the United States?
(a) Method of distribution of powers between centre and the States 
(b) Procedure of creation of new states 
(c) Position of judiciary
(d) Representation of States in the upper house of the federal legislature

84. In a Presidential form of Government all executive powers are vested in
(a) The President 
(b) The Cabinet 
(c) The Legislature 
(d) The Judiciary

85. Put the following events in correct chronological order:
1. Gadar Party 
2. Khilafat Movement 
3. Dandi March 
4. Champaran Satyagrah
(a) 4, 1, 2, 3
(b) 4, 1, 3, 2
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2
(d) 1, 4, 2, 3

86. Who used first the term “One party dominant system” to describe the party system that prevailed in India after independence?
(a) Rajani Kothari 
(b) Sartori 
(c) Jennings 
(d) Morris Jones

87. The Indian Constitution empowers the President to make provision for discharge of duties of Governor in certain contingencies under which of the following articles?
(a) Article 160
(b) Article 162
(c) Article 165
(d) Article 310

88. Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution enunciates fundamental duties?
(a) Article 35
(b) Article 51A
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 14

89. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the ideal of Welfare State?
(a) Preamble 
(b) Fundamentals Rights 
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy 
(d) Fundamental Duties

90. The term ‘State’ has been defined in which of the following articles of Indian constitution?
(a) Article 1
(b) Article 8
(c) Article 10
(d) Article 12

91. Who among the following was the first Vice-President of India?
(a) Zakir Hussain 
(b) S. Radhakrishnan
(c) V.V. Giri
(d) Gopal Swaroop Pathak 

92. The Swaraj Party was founded by whom of the following?
(a) C.R. Das 
(b) Motilal Nehru 
(c) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
(d) C.R. Das and Maulana Azad

93. Who is the author of the book ‘The Makers of Modern India’?
(a) Sumit Sarkar 
(b) Bipin Chandra
(c) Bimal Prasad 
(d) Ramchandra Guha

94. The Jalianwala Kand took place in 1919 on which of the following dates?
(a) 10th April 
(b) 13th April
(c) 14th April
(d) 19th April

95. Which of the following bodies is not provided in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Public Service Commission 
(b) Election Commission 
(c) Planning Commission 
(d) Finance Commission

96. The philosophical foundation of the Indian Constitution is
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy 
(b) Fundamentals Rights 
(c) Federal Structure
(d) Preamble

97. Indian Parliament constitutes of
(a) Lok Sabha 
(b) Rajya Sabha 
(c) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 
(d) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President

98. The total number of the members of the Legislative Council  of Uttar Pradesh is
(a) 105
(b) 108
(c) 110
(d) 125

99. Who presides the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament?
(a) President of India 
(b) Prime Minister 
(c) Chairperson of Rajya Sabha 
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

100. Under which Article of Indian Constitution a High Court can issue writs to protect the Fundamental Rights?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 32 
(c) Article 35
(d) Article 226

101. The Legal Advisor of the State Government is called
(a) Attorney General
(b) Solicitor General 
(c) Advocate General 
(d) None of the above

102. Which of the following of Indian Constitution empowers the Governor to issue during recess of the State legislature?
(a) Article 210
(b) Article 211
(c) Article 213
(d) Article 214

103. The First Round Table  Conference began on
(a) 11th November, 1930
(b) 12th November, 1930
(c) 13th November, 1930
(d) 14th November, 1930

104. Who was the main architect of Home Rule Movement in India?
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale 
(b) Annie Beasant 
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Surendranath Banerjee

105. Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court mentioned in which of the following articles of Indian constitution?
(a) Article 131
(b) Article 132
(c) Article 143
(d) Article 148

106. Who said that ‘the emergency powers of the President are a fraud on the constitution’?
(a) K.M. Nambiar 
(b) K.M. Munshi 
(c) B.N. Rao
(d) K.T. Shah

107. Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to legislate on a subject of the State List?
(a) Article 115
(b) Article 116
(c) Article 226
(d) Article 249

108. When was the first amendment in the Indian Constitution made?
(a) July 1950
(b) December 1950
(c) June 1951
(d) July 1951

109. The Eleventh Scheduled of Indian Constitution deals which of the following?
(a) Official Languages
(b) Political Parties 
(c) Municipalities 
(d) Panchayati Raj

110. Which of the following writes literally means ‘We Command’?
(a) Habeas Corpus 
(b) Mandamus 
(c) Prohibition 
(d) Quo-Warranto

111. Which article of Indian Constitution provides an jurisdiction to the Supreme Court?
(a) Article 129
(b) Article 132
(c) Article 143
(d) Article 32

112. In which of the following cases Supreme Court of India enunciated the doctrine of basis structure?
(a) Keshwanand Bharti Case
(b) Golaknath Case
(c) Minnerwa Mills Case
(d) Gopalan Case

113. Which one of the following is a subject of concurrent list?
(a) Police 
(b) Criminal Matters 
(c) Radio and Television 
(d) Foreign Affairs

114. The decision for Quit India Movement was taken at which of the following places?
(a) Allahabad 
(b) Poona 
(c) Wardha 
(d) Sabarmati

115. Sarkaria Commission was related with which of the following?
(a) Judicial reforms 
(b) Federal reforms
(c) Electoral reforms
(d) Financial reforms

116. Which of the following is termed as ‘Magna Carta of Indian Liberties’?
(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
(c) Charter Act of 1813
(d) Queen’s proclamation of 1858

117. Which one of the following word is not mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Sovereign 
(b) Secular 
(c) Federal 
(d) Democratic

118. The Constitution of India vests the executive powers of the Indian Union to which of the following?
(a) The Prime Minister 
(b) The president 
(c) The Councils of Ministers
(d) The Parliament

119. Who among the following acts as presiding officer of the house without being its member?
(a) Vice President 
(b) Lok Sabha Speaker 
(c) Chairman of the Legislative Council
(d) Speaker of Legislative Assembly

120. Dyarchy was introduced in Indian provinces by
(a) Indian Council’s Act, 1861
(b) Indian Council’s Act, 1892
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

UPPSC 2011-QUESTION PAPER: Geography



Max. Marks : 300
Time: 2 Hours
Write your Roll Number in the box (in numbers / in words)
To mark Answer use Black ball point pen only.
Till told, do not open the booklet.
Candidate must read all the instructions before writing the answers.
You are to mark your answer on Answer Sheet only. After the examination is over, handover the
Answer Sheet to the Invigilator.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

1. Answer all questions. All questions carry equal marks.
2. The candidate should indicate the correct Roll Number, Subject, Paper Code and its Series on the Answer-Sheet. otherwise the Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and the candidate will be solely responsible for it.
3. This booklet contains 120 questions. Each question has 4 altemative answers. The candidate has to darken only one circle or bubble indicating the correct answer on the answer sheet using black ball point pen. If more than one answers are marked, it would be treated as wrong answer and it will notbe examined.
4. Nothing is to be written on the cover page or any other page of this booklet. If you need a working sheet to do your rough work. please ask the invigilator for it and mention required information on it.
5. If you happen-to find that the booklet issued to you does not have all the pages properly printed or it has any other deficiency, then you need to approach the invigilator to get another booklet of same series and code.

1. The Cuddapah system of rocks belong to

(a) Archaen Group

(b) Aryan Group

(c) Dravidian Group

(d) Purana Group

2. The alluvial soils found along the banks of the rivers in the Ganga Plain are called

(a) Khadar

(b) Bhangar

(c) Bhur

(d) Loess

3. Which one of the following districts of Eastern Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of sugar mills?

(a) Mahrajganj

(b) Deoria

(c) Kushinagar

(d) Gorakhpur

4. The State of India having almost monopoly in the production of chromite is                     

(a) Bihar

(b) Orissa    

(c) Kamataka

(d) Maharashtra

5. Which one of the following States of India has the largest forest cover?

(a) Uttarakhand

(b) Jharkhand

(c) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Jamm & Kashmir

6. Which one of the following countries is known as the 'land of Rjce- Revolution' ?

(a) China

(b) India

(c) Japan

(d) Philippines

7. The theory of cumulative causation and spatial interaction was propounded by

(a) W. Rostow

(b) F. Perroux

(c) G. Myrdal

(d) W. Isard

8. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(a) Donetz Basin - Russia

(b) Lancashire - U.K.

(c) Shansi - China

(d) Saar - Germany

9. Of the following whose loeational theory of economic activities is based on the premise that natural resources are ubiquitous whereas economic resources occur at
locales?

(a) Yon Thunen

(b) Alfred Weber

(c) Edger Hoover

(d) John Weaver

10. Largest industrial gas reserves are found in

(a) Iran

(b) Iraq

(c) Qatar

(d) Russia

11. When the total population is divided by arable land, the density thus obtained is called

(a) Physical density

(b) Agricultural density

(c) Nutritional density

(d) Arithmetic density

12. Tertiary activities include:

1. Agriculture

2. Construction

3. Services

4. Trade

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

13. Noon rays of the Sun fall perpendicular on 21st June at

(a) Kolkata

(b) Ranchi

(c) Allahabad

(d) Ahmedbad

14. Match List - I with List - II and select  the correct answer from the code given below:                    

List - I                 List - II    
(Landform)     (Agent of erosion)
A. Pothole        1. Underground water        
B. Sinkhole      2. Sea water    
C. Stack          3. Wind        
D. Tafoni         4. River        

Codes:                        
          A   B   C  D        
(a)      4   3   2   1        
(b)      2    1  3   4        
(c)      4    1   2   3        
(d)      1    2   4   3        

15. Which one of the following layers denotes rapid change. of sea water density in the depth zone of 300 m - 1000 m?

(a) Halocline

(b) Thermocline

(c) Pycnocline

(d) Ecocline

16. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Pediplain - W.Penck

(b) Peneplain - W.M. Davis

(c) Panplain - C.H.Crickmay

(d) Panfan  - A.C.Lawson

17. Among the following volcanoes which is known as the light house of the Mediterranean Sea?

(a) Stramboli

(b) Kotopaxi

(c) Visuvious

(d) Elburz

18. Who devised the Index of development based on principal component analysis?

(a) O.E. Baker

(b) J. Fried-mann

(c) R.P. Mishra

(d) C.D. Harris
   
19. Who of the following advanced the theory of law of Retail Gravitation?

(a) P.O. Converse

(b) A.E. Smailes

(c) W.J. Reilly

(d) R.E. Dickinson

20. The concept of probabilism is associated with

(a) G. Taylor

(b) P. Hartshorne

(c) D. Harvey

(d) O.H.K. Spate

21. The limit of photic zone is determined by

(a) Density of sea water

(b) Salinity of sea water

(c) Penetration of sunlight

(d) Temperature of sea water

22. Which of the following statements regarding bio- fuels are correct?

1. It is obtained from maize and sugarcane crops.

2. It is a cost effective fuel.

3. It does not affect food security.

4. It is an eco-friendly source of fuel.

(a) 1 and 2 are correct.

(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

(c) 1 and 4 are correct.

(d) 3 and 4 are correct.

23. The correct sequence of languages in descending order in terms of their number of speakers in the world is

(a) Spanish, English, Chinese, Hindi

(b) English, Chinese, Hindi, Spanish

(c) Hindi, Chinese, Spanish, English

(d) Chinese, English, Hindi, Spanish

24. Who of the following said "Climate was the fundamental factor in the rise of civilization" ?

(a) Ellsworth Huntington

(b) Carl Saver

(c) E.C. Semple

(d) Griffith Taylor

25. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Aetas - Philippines

(b) Inuits - Greenland

(c) Hottentat - Zambia

(d) Masai - Kenya

26. Kalpsar project fur the supply of sweet water is located in

(a) Haryana

(b) Kamataka

(c) Rajasthan

(d) Gujarat

27. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated in

(a) 1984

(c) 1988

(b) 1986

(d) 1990

28. Which one of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of the Government of India?

(a) Afforestation

(b) Solar power

(c) Nuclear power

(d) Waste to energy conversion

29. Assertion (A): Ecological productivity decreases from the equator towards the poles.

Reason (R): Insolation rapidly decreases from the equator towards the poles.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) arc true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) arc true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

30. Assertion (A): Conservation IS a basic element of envirorunental planning. Conservation and development are complementary to each other.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

31. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) Biodiversity hot spots - Areas of rich biodiversity.

(b) Leopold Matrix - Morphometry of drainage basins

(c) Acid rains - Carbon dioxide

(d) Coral bleaching - Decrease in the temperature of sea water
32. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer USing the code given below:

List - I                  List -II
A. E. Huntington   1. Social Darvinism
B. G. Taylor          2. Probabilism
C. F. Ratzel          3. Scientific determinism
D. O.H.K.             4. Stop and Go determinism

Codes:

      A    B   C   D
(a)  3    4   1    2
(b)  2    1   3    4
(c)  4    3    2    1
(d)  1    4   3    2

33. The terms longitude and latitude were first used by

(a) Herodotus

(b) Eratosthcnese

(c) Posidonius

(d) Ptolemy

34. Who of the following devised behavioural matrix?

(a) I. Burton

(b) I. Flex

(c) A. Pred

(d) A. Peet

35. Who of the following propounded the 'Principle of least effort' ?

(a) J.Q. Stewart

(b) W.l. Reilly

(c) W. Leo

(d) G.K. Zipf

36. Who of the following is known for the work 'Spaces of Hope' ?

(a) D.Harvey

(b) J.B.Harley

(c) G.Taylor    

(d) P.Taylor

37. The concept of 'ecumene' was advanced by

(a) Alexander von Humboldt

(b) Eratosthenese

(c) J.R. Forster

(d) Strabo

38. Who of the following propounded the 'organic theory of State'?

(a) Ratzel

(b) Humboldt

(c) Richthofen

(d) Mackinder

39. The concept of map projections was first advanced by

(a) Aristotle

(b) Hippacartus

(c) Posidonius

(d) Ptolemy

40. "Geobrraphy in itscl f is a philosophy of the world of man." The above statement is contributed to

(a) Albert Dcmangcon

(b) Jean Brunhes

(c) Camille Vallaux

(d) P.E. James

41. The chorological approach in Geography was enunciated by

(a) Alfred Hettner

(b) Carl Saver

(c) Jean Brunhes

(d) Richard Hartshorne


42. following was the Who among the first map maker?

(a) Crates

(b) Ptolemy

(c) Anexirnander

(d) Eratosthenese


43. Which one of the following methods of representation of height on maps is most suitable for flat regions?

(a) Hachure

(b) Formline

(c) Spot height

(d) Bench Mark (B.M.)

44. Which one of the following characteristics is represented by Mollweide Projection?

(a) Equidistant

(b) Orthomorphic

(c) Azimuthal

(d) Homolographic


45. Who of the following made extensive corrections to the world map of Ptolemy?

(a) Al-Edrisi

(b) Al-Masudi

(c) Al-Biruni

(d) Ibn-Batuta

46. The leading producer of milk in the world is

(a) China

(b) India

(c) U.S.A.

(d) Russia

47. Identify the correct seq uence of the population of States (2011 provisional) In descending order:

(a) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal, Bihar

(b) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal

(c) Uttar Pradesh. Bihar, West Bengal, Maharashtra

(d) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, West Bengal


48. Match List - I with List - II and select and the correct answer from the given below:
List- I                            List - II
(Graph)                        (Major Use) 
A. Hythergraph         1. RepresentatIon of tern perature and rainfall 
B. Pyramid               2. Representation of Age & Sex structure
C. Cartogram           3. Representation of data on maps
D. Hypsographic       4. Representation of height of land and depth of ocean

Codes:
         A    B    C    D
(a)     1    2    3    4
(b)     1    3    2    4
(c)     2    1    4    3
(d)    3    2    1    4

49. Which of the following countries has the lowest infantile mortality?

(a) China

(b) India

(c) Pakistan

(d) Sri Lanka

50. Arrange the following States of India is descending order of their reserves of coal.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

1. Chhattisgarh

2. Jharkhand

3. Orissa

4. West Bengal

Codes:
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2,3,1,4
(c) 4,3,1,2
(d) 2,4, 3,1

51. In India the largest producer of marine fish is

(a) Gujarat

(b) Kerala

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Maharashtra

52. In India more than half of the production of soyabean comes from

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Rajasthan

53. The Deccan trap was formed by the

(a) Dharwar Vulcanicity

(b) Mesozoic Vulcanicity

(c) Cretaceous Vulcanicity

(d) Palaeozoic Vulcanicity


54. The correct sequence of States In terms of population density (2011) in descending order is

(a) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala

(b) Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh

(c) Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh

(d) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala

55. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Sustained life on earth is a characteristic of ecosystem.

(b) Nature has spent millions of years to refine a stable ecosystem

(c) Ecosystem functions mainly through the input of solar energy

(d) The relative loss of energy due to respiration decreases with higher trophic levels


56. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I                        List - II
(Biosphere Reserve)    (State)

A. Dehang-Debang     1. Orissa
B. Manas                   2. Meghalaya
C. Nokrek                  3. Assam
D. Similipal                4. Arunachal Pradesh 

Codes:
           A    B    C    D
(a)      4     3     2     1
(b)      1     2     3     4
(c)      4     2     3     1
(d)      1     3     2     4 

57. The concept of 'ecological niche' was first introduced by

(a) C.C.Park

(b) E.P.Odum

(c) J. Grinel

(d) G.E.Hutchinson

58. On which of the following livers of Bhutan is Chukha Hydel Project located?

(a) Raidak

(b) Amochu

(c) Mochu

(d) Dongmechu
59. Presently the largest producer of cow milk in the world is

(a) China

(b) U.S.A.

(c) India

(d) Russia


60. The driest area of the world is located In

(a) Thar Desert

(b) Mongolia

(c) Sudan

(d) Chile
  
61. Which one of the following countries is the least urbanized country in the world?

(a) Uganda

(b) Sri Lanka

(c) Papua - New Guinea

(d) Burundi

62. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I                                                        List - II     
A. Largest city by population in the world        1. Hulum Buir     
B. Smallest city by population in the world      2. Vatican City
C. Largest city by area in the world                3. Tokyo  
D. Smallest city by area in the world              4. Hum


Codes:
       A    B    C   D   
(a)   3    4    1   2
(b)   2    3    1   4
(c)   1    2    4   3
(d)   4    1    3   2

63. In a climograph high relative humidity and high wet bulb temperature denotes

(a) Keen climate

(b) Muggy climate

(c) Raw climate

(d) Scorching climate

64. The border of Ethiopia does not touch which one of the following countries?

(a) Uganda

(b) Sudan

(c) Somali Republic

(d) Kenya

65. Which one of the following countries is devoid of copper resource?

(a) Peru

(b) Poland

(c) Zambia

(d) Portugal

66. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I              List - II
(Tribe)              (Region)
A. Semang        1. Congo Basin
B. Kirghiz          2. Malaysia
C. Bushman      3. Central Asia
D. Pygmies       4. Kalahari Desert


Codes:
       A   B    C   D
(a)   4   2    3    1
(b)   1   3    2    4
(c)    2   1    4    3
(d)    2  3    4    1    

67. Zambia docs not have a common border with

(a) Tanzania

(b) Mozambique

(c) Botswana

(d) Angola

68. Arrange the following countries in ascending order of their population.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. Bangladesh

2. Brazil

3. Indonesia

4. Pakistan

Codes:
(a) 1,4,2,3

(b) 1,2,3,4

(c) 2,4,1,3

(d) 4,3,2,1

69. Which one of the following is characterised with maximum of wild life and plant diversity?

(a) Temperate grasslands

(b) Temperate deciduous forests

(c) Tropical moist forests

(d) Deserts and Savannas

70. The largest group of Arctic people is formed by

(a) Yakuts and Lapps

(b) Lapps and Zyrians

(e) Zyrians and Eskimos

(d) Yakuts and Zyrains

71. The North Pole is always in the light

(a) From September 23 to March 21

(b) From March 21 to September 23

(c) From June 21 to December 22

(d) From December 22 to March 21

Assertion (A) : Sugarcane is considered a tropical crop and yet it is grown extensively outside the tropics in India.
Reason (R) The extra-tropical areas in India have tropical temperature due to the presence of Himalayas in the North.

72. Select the correct answer from the code given below:

a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

73. The Canterbury grasslands are not like:

(a) Downs

(b) Pampas

(c) Campas

(d) Veld

74. Formosa Sea lies between

(a) China and Philippines

(b) China and Taiwan

(c) China and North Korea

(d) China and South Korea

75. Kalahari Desert is located in

1. Botswana

2. Namibia

3. Zambia

4. Zimbabwe

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4

76. The largest part of the dry continental type of climate is found in

(a) South America

(b) Africa

(c) Eurasia

(d) North America

77. Which one of the following is not a pastoral nomad ?

(a) Masai

(b) Kirghiz

(c) Kazak

(d) Pygmies

78. Which of the following volcanoes are active volcanoes?

1. Aconcagua

2. Etna

3. Fujiyama

4. Vesuvius 

Select the correct answer from he codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 3 and 4


79. The essential feature of shifting cultivation is the

(a) Rotation of crops

(b) Mono-cropping

(c) Intensive cropping

(d) Rotation of fields

80. Assertion (A) : Aridity is the distincti ve characteristic of the deserts.
Reason (R) They receive low rainfall and have high evaporation.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

81. Which of the following soils are not insitu soils?

(a) Chernozem
(b) Laterite

(c) Alluvial

(d) Chestnut

82. Assertion (A) The circum-pacific belt is the most vulnerable zone of Tsunamis.
Reason (R) It is tectonically most active area and generates world's major earthquakes.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

83. Which one of the following seas is the largest in area?

(a) Sea of Okhotsk

(b) Sea of Japan

(c) Sea of China

(d) Bering Sea

84. Which one of the following is the main geo-thermal energy producing country ?

(a) China

(b) U.S.A.

(c) Japan

(d) India

85. Which one of the following is an example of a block mountain?

(a) Aravalli

(b) Andes

(c) Black Forest

(d) Caucasus

86. The largest reserves of coal in the world are found in

(a) U.S.A.

(b) Russia

(c) China

(d) Australia

87. The most famous million city of Siberia is

(a) Chelyabinsk

(b) Gorky

(c) Vladivostok

(d) Novosibirsk

88. Which one of the following representative fraction (R.F.) represents the scale 6" = 1 mile ?

(a) 1: 63,360

(b) 1: 1,26,720

(c) 1: 10,560

(d) 1: 2,53,440


89. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?



90: Match List - I with List - II and Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List - I                  List - II (Use)

A. Anemometer       1. Measuring angle of slope / dip of rock strata
B. Sextant              2. Locating object space
C. Clinometer         3. Measuring speed of wind
D. Radar                4. Measuring heights of celestial bodies from ships

Codes:
       A  B C D
(a)   2   3  4  1
(b)   4   1  2  3
(c)   3   2  1  4
(d)   3   4  1  2


91. If the R.F. is 1:40 which of the following distances can be correctly shown by using a diagonal scale ?

(a) 2.0 metre

(b) 2.3 metre

(c) 2.33 metre

(d) 2.333 metre

92. Which of the'. following amount of rainfall is depicted by the symbol , on the Indian Daily Weather Maps ?

(a) -0.15 cm

(b) -0.25 cm

(e) - 0.75 cm

(d) - 1.50 cm

93. The symbol ® represents which one of the following status of clouds in Indian Daily Weather Maps?

(a) 5/8 low clouds

(b) 3/4 high clouds

(c) 7/8 low clouds

(d) overcast high clouds

94. The three point problem in geological maps is faced when

(a) An outcrop is fully visible at only one point

(b) An outcrop is partly visible only at one point

(c) An outcrop is partly visible at many points

(d) None of the above

95. In which of the following map projections, all latitudes are standard parallel?

(a) Polyconic projection

(b) Simple conic projection

(c) Bonne's projection

(d) Mercator's projection

96. Which one of the following symbols is used on the Weather Map of India to indicate a wind speed of 15 knots/hour ?


97. On the given diagram the shape of the slope profile along A-B line will result in a slope profile showing

(a) Convex slope

(b) Concave slope

(c) Undulating slope

(d) Terraced slope


98. Which one of the following South-East Asian countries predominantly consists of Christian community population?

(a) Thailand

(b) Indonesia

(c) Malaysia

(d) Philippines

99. Which one of the foIlowing is different from the others?

(a) Prairies

(b) Selvas

(c) Sundarban

(d) Pampas

100. Which one of the following is the more stable trait for the classi fication of human races?

(a) Nasal Index

(b) Cephalic Index

(c) Hair Structure

(d) Skin colour

101. following scholars the concept of Which one of the has propounded Humanism?

(a) Yi-Fu-Tuan

(b) R. Hartshorne

(c) David Harvey

(d) Peter Haggett

102. Who of the following has used the world Geopacifics?

(a) T. Griffith Taylor

(b) Mackindcr

(c) Hartshorne

(d) Huntington

103. Which one of the following is the port city of Sooth Africa? 

(a) Bloemfontein

(b) East London

(c) Johannesburg

(d) Kimberley

104. Assertion (A) Chernozems are black soils.

Reason (R) They are deficient in organic matter.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

105. The 'zone and strata' theory about the evolution of human races was propounded by

(a) A.C.Haddon

(b) A.L.Krober

(c) J.H. Hutton

(d) G.Taylor

106. Which one of the following is called marine snowfall ?

(a) Fall of snow flakes on sea surface

(b) Fall of hail on sea surface

(c) Continuous fall of snow pillets on ocean floors

(d) Continuous fall of tiny marine sediments on ocean floors.

107. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?

(a) Rossbx Waves - Jet stream

(b) EI Nino - Strong Monsoon

(c) Index cycle - Walker circulation

(d) Hadley cell - Mid-Latitude cell

108. The 'Spice Park' has been established by Spice Board of India at

(a) Haridwar

(b) Valley of Flowers

(c) Silent Valley

(d) Kashmir Valley

109. The biggest island of the Indian Ocean is

(a) Maldives

(b) Madagascar

(c) Lakshadweep

(d) Sumatra

110. In which of the following States of India is Ghana Bird Sanctuary located ?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) West Bengal

(c) Orissa

(d) Karnataka

111. The largest wind energy farm of India is located in

(a) Kerala

(b) Gujarat

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Madhya Pradesh

112. Which one of the following inland waterways in India is shortest In length?

(a) Kollam - Kottapuram

(b) Sadia - Dhubri

(c) Kakinada - Marakkam

(d) Allahabad - Haldia

113. Which one of the following is the first indigenous nuclear power plant of the country?

(a) Kaiga

(b) Kalpakkarr

(c) Kota

(d) Kakrapar

114. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched '?

(a) Green Revolution Agriculture

(by White Revolution - Milk Production

(c) Yellow Revolution - Sericulture

(d) Blue Revolution - Pisciculture

115. Which of the following / Union Territory of the country does not have a railway line?

(a) Pondicherry

(b) Tripura

(c) Nagaland

(d) Meghalaya

116. Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of Himalaya Mountain passes from East to West?

(a) Shipki La - Lipulekh - Nathu La - Bomdilla

(b) Lipulekh - Shipki La - Nathu La - Bomdilla

(c) Bomdilla - Nathu La - Lipulekh - Shipki La

(d) Nathu La - Lipulekh - Shipki La - Bomdilla

117. Which one of the following districts of U.P has the highest ratio of literacy in the census of 2011 ?

(a) Ghaziabad

(b) Lucknow

(c) Varanasi

(d) Raebareilly

118. Which one of the following States of India receives lowest average annual rainfall ?

(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Jammu & Kashmir

(c) Orissa

(d) Madhya Pradesh


119. The largest reserve of crude oil In India is found in            

(a) Assam                

(b) Gujarat                

(c) Eastern Offshore        

(d) Western Offshore        

120. In India Koppen's 'Amw' climatic type is found in

(a) Eastern Coast

(b) Western Coast

(c) Chotanagpur

(d) Western Himalaya