Sunday, May 29, 2011

CSAT Sample Paper

SAMPLE QUESTIONS BASED ON REVISED PATTERN OF CS(P) EXAMINATION EFFECTIVE FROM 2011

A set of 14 sample questions for Paper-I and Paper-II of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, on the revised syllabus and pattern, are given below. These questions are indicative of the type of questions that may be constructed and used by UPSC in Paper-I and Paper II of CS (P) examination, 2011. However, neither the content nor the structure/type of questions may be construed as being exhaustive or limiting the freedom of UPSC to set questions based on the syllabus prescribed for the examination.

It may be noted that as per the existing practice, both the question papers would be bilingual (English and Hindi), except for some questions specifically intended to test English Language Comprehension skills, which would be in English only. Some more sample questions may be put up subsequently. Hindi version of the sample questions would follow.

CS(P) Examination SAMPLE QUESTIONS

(Based on revised syllabi & pattern effective from CS(P) Examination, 2011)

PAPER-I

1. With reference to Simon Commission’s recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces.

(b) It proposed the setting up of inter-provincial council under the Home Department.

(c) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre

(d) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits.

2. A geographic area with an altitude of 400 metres has following characteristics:

Month

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

Average

31

31

31

31

30

30

29

28

29

29

30

31

maximum temp.
0C

Average

21

21

21

21

21

21

20

20

20

20

20

20

minimum temp.
0C

Rainfall (mm)

51

85

188

158

139

121

134

168

185

221

198

86

If this geographic area were to have a natural forest, which one of the following would
it most likely be?

(a) Moist temperate coniferous forest

(b) Montane subtropical forest

(c) Temperate forest

(d) Tropical rain forest

3. Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good option for the production of bio-diesel in India?

1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India.

2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which nearly half of oleic acid.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not. This is because:

(a) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose

(b) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves

(c) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water

(d) Potato is a fresh organic material whereas paper is a dead organic material

5. With reference to India, consider the following:

1. Nationalization of Banks

2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks

3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches

Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the ‘financial inclusion” in India?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. Consider the following actions by the Government:

1. Cutting the tax rates

2. Increasing the government spending

3. Abolishing the subsidies

In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be considered a part of the ” fiscal stimulus” package?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

PAPER-II

Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers should be drawn from the content of given passage only.The economy of contemporary India is a great paradox. It is a strange combination of outstanding achievements as well as grave failures. Since independence, India has achieved remarkable progress in overcoming its economic backwardness. From being a very poor country in the 1950s and a ‘basket case’ in the mid 1960s, it has emerged as the fourth largest economy in the world (in terms of purchasing power parity). Our economy has become one of the fastest growing economies in the world. Now the country is one of the leading players in the world knowledge economy with vast intellectual capital and booming software and information technology services. While our country has joined the league of the world’s top five fastest growing economies, we are in the bottom 20 among all countries in terms of the Human Development Index. While the country is celebrating its growth rate and technological wonders, it is witnessing social contradictions and the paradox and ironies of development. Thus, there are ‘two Indias’ in contemporary India.

1. Why is the Indian economy considered ‘a great paradox’?

(a) It is a leading player in information technology services with low levels of
literacy.

(b) There is poverty amidst plenty in agricultural produce.

(c) It is one of the largest economies with low human development.

(d) It has scientific achievements with social contradictions.

2. Why is India being referred to as a leading player in the world knowledge economy?

(a) India’s knowledge base in science and technology is one of the world’s best.

(b) India has huge reserves of human intellectual capitals and information technology services.

(c) India is among the World’s five fastest growing economics and technology reserves.

(d) India has a huge reservoir of human capital and scientific knowledge export potential.

3. What does the author imply by the phrase ‘two Indias’ ?

(a) There is the India that has vast intellectual capital and the other that is largely
illiterate.

(b) There is the India of burgeoning growth and the India of widespread want and
misery.

(c) There is the India of progressive mindsets and the other who are socially
conservative.

(d) There is an India of outstanding achievements combined with gigantic failures.

4. Consider the following statement and also the conclusions. Answer the question that follows:Statement : Education is in the Concurrent List. The State government cannot bring reforms in education without the consent of Central Government.

Conclusion I : For bringing about quick reforms in education, it should be in the State List .

Conclusion II: States are not willing to bring about quick reforms in Education.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Conclusion -I only follows from the statement.

(b) Conclusion -II only follows from the statement.

(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement

(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement

5. Five persons P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in a row. Q is between P and T. To find who among them is in the middle, which of the information given in the following statements is/are sufficient?

1. P is left of Q and right of S.

2. R is at the right end.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Either 1 or 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

6. Which one among V2 , , V6 , is the smallest one?

7. The following pie charts show that a man spends 10% on clothes, 20% on rent, 30% on food and rest on miscellaneous items in the month of January and spends 15% on clothes, 25% on rent, 35% on food and rest on miscellaneous items in the month of February.

Consider the following statements:

1. The money spent on food over rent in the month of January is same as the
money spent on food over rent in the month of February.

2. The money spent on rent over clothes is same as money spent on food over
rent in the month of January.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Note:The following question would be in English Language only to test
English Language Comprehension.

8. Whenever I had occasion to indulge in these surreptitious feasts, dinner at home was out of question. My mother would naturally ask me to come and take my food and want to know the reason why I did not wish to eat. I would say to her, ‘I have no appetite today; there is something wrong with my digestion.’ It was not without compunction that I devised these pretexts. I knew I was lying, and lying to my mother. l also knew that, if my mother and father came to know of my having become a meat- eater, they would be deeply shocked. This knowledge was gnawing at my heart.

Why did the author devise some pretexts not without compunction ?

(a) He wanted to keep away from home some times.

(b) Surreptitious feasts thrilled him.

(c) Dinners outside were better than at home.

(d) He wanted to eat meat

CSAT Papers

The new format of the civil services examination is yet to get into practice, but been planned to hit the road from the year 2011 onwards under the category of ‘Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT).’

According to the new scheme, the candidates would be facing an aptitude test in the place of ‘General Studies’ and ‘Optional Subjects’ question pattern that were conducted under the plan called as the ‘Preliminary examination.’ The Union Public Service Commission has been established under the ‘Article 315’ of the Constitution of India for coordinating the effective functioning of the All India Services, common to both the states and the unions.

It is also responsible for conducting the All India Civil Services examinations for appropriate admissions to the civil services, such as Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), Indian Forest Service (IFS) and to other government related jobs, which could be grouped under Group ‘A’ and Group ‘B’ categories

Civil Services (Prelim) Exam.-2011 CSAT Syllabus

From Civil Service Examination 2011, Preliminary Examination would consist of two papers- Paper I and Paper II. The syllabus and pattern of the Preliminary Examination would be as under :

(Paper 1) (200 marks) - Duration : Two hrs.
Current events of national and international importance History of India and Indian national movement
Indian and World Geography- physical, social, economic geography of India and the world
Indian Polity and governance – constitution, political system, panchayati raj, public policy, Rights issues, etc.
Economic and social development – sustainable development, poverty, inclusion, demographics, social sector initiatives etc.
General issues on environmental ecology, bio-diversity and climate change-that do not require subject specialization
General science.


(Paper II) (200 marks) – Duration : Two hrs
Comprehension
Interpersonal skills including communication skills
Logical reasoning and analytical ability
Decision making and problem solving
General mental ability
Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude etc. (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. –Class X level)
English language comprehension skills (Class X level)


JPSC 4th PT Geography ansewer Key

Solutions of GEOGRAPHY for JPSC -2011

1) Max. potential number of inhabitants = (a) biotic potential

2) Minmata = (c ) water poll.

3) Pleistocene epoh ,four glacial = b) gunz

4) Climate found in coastal areas of California = b) Mediterranean

5) Continent lowest growth rate of population = d) Europe

6) Hurricane acquires its spin = d) 1,2,3

7) Largest conc. Of railways = a) s.africa

8) Country reliant on a single export of oil = d) Nigeria

9) In remote sensing, chlorophyll = a) 0.45-0.67

10) Extensive corrections in Ptolmey’s work = Al Masudi

11) Varenius special = b) regional

12) Huttington= a)

13) Who related the rise of civilizations = a) hutington

14) For preparing world map, erastosthenes = d) syene

15) Correct order of geological events = b) Caledonian

16) Colours to show cultivated area = c) yellow

17) Match : Great Bear Lake = d)

18) Age of earth = c)

19) Ichthyosaur = c) Triassic

20) Largest amount of crude steel = d) china

21) Deserts, nitrates = a) Atacama

22) Primate city = c) Jefferson

23) Niagara falls = c) lake erie

24) Boundry zone between north American plate = a) convergence

25) Consider outline map = a) CA’w

26) Red river delta = d)

27) Projection is equator twice = c) mollweide

28) Producer of tobacco = a) Andhra, gujrat

29) UCIL at Lambapur = c) Andhra & Meghalaya

30) Kurnool- Cuddapah = b) Penneru

31) Not a landform, rejuvenation = c) oxbow

32) Truncated spur = c) glacial

33) Granite of plutonic = d) quartz

34) Datum line called = b) hypsographic

35) Mt. Waialeale = b) Hawaii

36) Most rainfall and snowfall = a) 1 only

37) China highest rain = d) south-east

38) Star diagram = c) wind

39) Construction of comfort diagram = b)

40) LANDSAT thematic = d) 10.40

41) Boulder Caly = d) glaciations

42) Outer planet = b)

43) The Great Rift Valley = c) red sea

44) Dead Sea = d) rift

45) Depositional work of river = a) alluvial

46) Hanging valley = d) glacier

47) Exfoliation = a) temp

48) Not form volcano = d) meander

49) Hypabyssal igneous = a) intrusive

50) EQ waves come first = a) epicenter

51) Moho = a)

52) Ionsphere begins = b) 80

53) % of nitrogen = d)

54) Reverse faults = a)

55) High atm inversion of temp = d) terrestrial

56) C’s climate of Sir = a) med.

57) Solistice = b) distrb of insolation not equal

58) Horse latitude = c)

59) Mausim = c)

60) Relative humidity = a) temp

61) Betwn 40 to 65 latitude = b

62) Puerto rico = b

63) Dogger bank = a

64) Laterite soil = d) tropical

65) Lake highest salinity = a) van

66) Uniform depth = d) pratt

67) 1992 survey = d) 173.6

68) Anthropogeographie = c) ratzel

69) Dicken and Pitts = b) human geo

70) Griffnith taylor classif of man = d) texture of hair

71) Gonds = a

72) Yellow river = c

73) Waterfall 28kn frm ranchi = b hundru

74) Sabarmati river = b) aravallis

75) Jabalpur lie = c) Narmada

76) Furlong = b ) 220

77) Which is correct = a) map prj is gratitule of line

78) Name of 1st satellite = c) ayabhatta

79) Programs for GIS =d) all

80) RF 1 cm = c)

81) Lake Titicaca = c) caldera

82) Fine grained ,dark coloured = a) basalt

83) Abs humidity /humidity capacity*100 = a) relative

84) Depressions that are formed = a)

85) Soils derived from crystalline = b) red

86) The towns with population = b) classIV

87) They constitute an earlier branch = a) palaeo

88) Projections with one set = c) nonpers

89) Stereogram = c) anaglyph

90) Response of org. to duration = a)

91) Cotton cultivation = c) meeting the demand

92) Iraq common border = d) Saudi

93) 63K/2 = a) 1”

94) India’s eastern ghats = c) nilgiris

95) Correctly Match : clark & evans = c) ackerman

96) Precipitation effectiveness = b)

97) Not match : tornado b

98) Bhils = d

99) Silting a major problem = d) hoogly

100) Not Match : associated agents : d) glacier

Lockheed Martin System Hacked


Lockheed Martin, one of the world's largest defense contractors, is also known for the great fighter plane F -16 producer was hit hard by hackers this week who used falsified SecurID electronic tokens to gain access in their system. The breach threatens the security of the secret data and information on present and future military with them.
It is not clear till now that anything was stolen during the breach. It isn't even clear what the hackers want, but the attacks are being traced back to an hacking campaign back in March on the RSA Security arm of the EMC Corporation, which is an important information storage firm in the country. The attack compromised the security of anyone using the RSA technology—which means most Fortune 500 companies, other military contractors, and even the Pentagon is operation over this technology
Most of these companies have since taken strong action to deal with the security issues associated with them, but as Rick Moy, president of NSS Labs, told Reuters, "Given the military targets, and that millions of compromised keys are in circulation, this is not over."
Lockheed looks quite confident that their broader security systems are in place and they have served to prevent or at least soften the blow from this breach. RSA, however, is at a different condition as facing critics because of this slag.
The RSA breach did raise concerns about any security tokens that had been compromised, and EMC now faced tough questions about whether "they can repair that product line or whether they need to ditch it and start over again," he said