UPPSC QUESTION PAPER GENERAL STUDIES-2011-SOLVED

1.  Which among the following is the largest software company in India ?

(a) Infosys

(b) TCS

(c) WIPRO

(d) HCL Tech

Ans: (b)

2. Which one of the following is different from the others from the point of view of ownership ?

(a) LIC Policy

(b) Bank Fixed Deposit

(c) Kisan Vikas Patra

(d) Debenture of a Company

Ans:

3. In the Union Budget 2011 - 12, the effective rate of interest for fanners on timely repayment of the bank loan is

(a) 7 percent

(b) 6 percent

(c) 4 percent

(d) 3 percent

Ans: (c)

4. 'Athapoo ' is associated with which of the following festivals ?

(a) Dol Yatra

(b) Onam

(c) Pongal

(d) Vishwakarma Puja

Ans: (b)

5. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I                                          List - II 

A. Pandit Durgalal                       1. Instrumental Music 

B. Lalgudi Jayaraman                  2. Dance 

C. Bala Murali  Krishna                3. Painting 

D. Amrita Shergil                         4. Vocal Music

Code:

       A  B  C  D 

(a)  2  1  4   3 

(b)  1  2  4   3 

(c)  3  1   2  4

(d)  2  4   3  1 

Ans: (a)

6. South Indian festival of 'Onam' is associated with which of the following ?

(a) Ram's victory over Rawan

(b) Durga's killing of Mahishasur

(c) Shiva Shakti

(d) Mahabali

Ans: (d)

7. Which of the following crops are grown mainly in the irrigated areas during Zaid ?

(a) Arhar and Gram

(b) Moong and Urad

(c) Rice and Millets

(d) Maize and Groundnut

Ans:

8. The largest producer of Sugar in India is

(a) Bihar

(b) Karnataka

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Uttar Pradesh

Ans: (c)

9. Which of the following authority sanctions foreign exchange for the import of goods ?

(a) Any Nationalised Bank

(b) Exchange Bank

(c) Reserve Bank of India

(d) Ministry of Financer

Ans:

10. A letter of credit has to be produced by

(a) an exporter

(b) an importer

(c) custom authorities

(d) shipping company

Ans:

11. Which organisation promotes the foreign trade ?

(a) ECGC

(b) MMTC

(c) STC

(d) All of the above

Ans:

12. The main source of fund for the National Highway Authority of India is

(a) Cess

(b) Foreign assistance

(c) Market borrowings

(d) Budgetary support of Union Government

Ans:

13. Golden rice has the highest quantity of

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Vitamin B

(c) Vitamin C

(d) Vitamin K

Ans: (a)

14. Which one of the following is useful in the treatment of scurvy disease ?

(a) Mango

(b) Papaya

(c) Aonla

(d) Ber

Ans: (c)

15. MODVAT is related to

(a) Excise duty

(b) Value Added Tax (VAT)

(c) Wealth Tax

(d) Income Tax

Ans: (b)

16. More than one-third of the crude steel production of the world comes from

(a) China

(b) Japan

(c) Russia

(d) U.S.A.

Ans: (a)

17. The Sun City is located in

(a) Italy

(b) Japan

(c) Mexico

(d) South Africa

Ans: (d)

18. The correct descending order of the leading producers of milk is

(a) China, India, Russia, U.S.A.

(b) India, U.S.A., China, Russia

(c) U.S.A., India, China, Russia

(d) India, China, U.S.A., Russia

Ans: (b)

19. Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists: 

List - I                                                  List - II

(Iron-Steel Centre)                             (Country)

A. Hamilton                                        1. China

B. Birmingham                                   2. Canada 

C. Essen                                            3. U.K. 

D. Anshan                                          4. Germany

Code:                     

        A   B   C   D

(a)   4   3    1   2    

(b)   2   1    4   3

(c)   2   3    4   1

(d)   3   4    2   1

Ans: (c)

20. Import procedure begins with

(a) Indent

(b) Mate's receipt

(c) Marine insurance

(d) Shipping bill

Ans:

21. Private Sector Mutual Funds in india were permitted in

(a) 1964

(b) 1993

(c) 1994

(d) 2001

Ans: (b)

22. The State known as 'Garden of Spices' is

(a) Karnataka

(b) Kerala

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Tamil Nadu

Ans: (b)

23. In India two largest producers of coal (2008 -09) are

(a) Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh

(b) Chhattisgarh and Orissa

(c) Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand

(d) Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh

Ans:

24.  Which of the following towns lie in the National Capital Region ?

1. Ambala

2. Khurja

3. Karnal

4. Rohtak

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans: (d)

25. Coolgardie lies in the Australian province of

(a) New South Wales

(b) Northern Territory

(c) Queensland

(d) Western Australia

Ans: (d)

26.  Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below: 

List - I (Lake)

A. Erie 

B. Michigan 

C. Ontario 

D. Superior

List - II (City) 

1. Duluth 

2. Detroit 

3. Gary 

4. Hamilton

Code:

       A   B    C   D

(a)   2    1   4   3

(b)   1    3   2   4

(c)   4    2    3   1

(d)   2    3   4   1

Ans:

27.  In India the State with the largest area under very dense forests is 

(a)  Arunachal Pradesh 

(b) Madhya Pradesh 

(c) Maharashtra 

(d) Orissa

Ans:

28.  Which one of the following does NOT lie in Maharashtra ?

(a) Balaghat Range

(b) Harishchandra Range

(c) Mandav Hills

(d) Satmala Hills

Ans:

29. Which one of the following is NOT the port town of Gujarat ?

(a) Jamnagar

(b) Okha

(c) Porbandar

(d) Veraval

Ans:

30.  Who among the following has been awarded the prestigious Abel Prize for the year 2011 ?

(a) Isadore M. Singer

(b) John Griggs Thompson

(c) John Willard Milnor

(d) Peter D. Lax

Ans: (c)

31. Assertion (A): Kerala stands first in terms of human development index.

Reason (R) : Its unemployment rate is the highest in the country.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans:

32. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

(a) Koyali - Gujarat

(b) Nagapattinam- Andhra Pradesh

(c) Numaligarh - Assam

(d) Manali - Tamil Nadu 

Ans:

33. Arrange the following States of India in descending order of their forest-area and select the correct answer from the code given below:

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Arunachal Pradesh

3. Chhattisgarh

4. Orissa

Code:

(a) 1, 3, 4, 2 

(b) 1, 2, 3, 4

(c) 4, 3, 1, 2 

(d) 2, 1, 4, 3

Ans:

34. According to the World Bank's Global Development Finance Report 2010 the correct descending order of the world's five most indebted countries is

(a) Russia, Brazil, China, Turkey, India

(b) Russia, China, Turkey, Brazil, India

(c) Russia, China, Brazil, India, Turkey

(d) Russia, Brazil, India, China,Turkey

Ans:

35. In February 2011 India International Youth Film Festival was held in

(a) Hyderabad

(b) Kolkata

(c) Mumbai

(d) New Delhi

Ans: (d)

36. At the 83rd Oscar Awards the best film award was won by

(a) Black Swan

(b) The Fighter

(c) The King's Speech

(d) The Social Network 

Ans: (c)

37. The foundation stone of the third Indian Research Centre in Antarctica was laid by the name of

(a) Sarswati

(b) Bharti

(c) Anweshan

(d) Yamnotri

Ans: (b)

38. The author of the book "The Emperor of All Maladies A Biography of Cancer", for which 2011 Pulitzer Prize has been awarded, is

(a) Farid Zakariya

(b) Geeta Anand

(c) Jhumpa Lahiri

(d) Siddhartha Mukherjee

Ans: (d)

39. Who among the following film actors was given Mother Teresa Award in March 2011 ?

(a) Prem Chopra

(b) Rajesh Khanna

(c) Shammi Kapoor

(d) Shatrughan Sinha

Ans: (a)

40. Which one of the following Indian States has recently signed a $220 million agreement with the World Bank ?

(a) Bihar

(b) Kerala

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Tamil Nadu

Ans: (a)

41. India has recently signed Comprehensive Economic Co-operation Agreement with

(a) Indonesia

(b) Malaysia

(c) Saudi Arabia

(d) Vietnam

Ans:

42. Which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the highest literacy rate as per the provisional figures of 2011 Census?

(a) Gautambuddh Nagar

(b) Ghaziabad

(c) Kanpur Nagar

(d) Lucknow

Ans: (b)

43. Thumri Singer Girija Devi belongs to

(a) Banaras Gharana

(b) Agra Gharana

(c) Kirana Gharana

(d) Lucknow Gharana

Ans: (a)

44. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below: 

List - I (District)              List - II (Headquarters)

A. Jalaun                        1. Akbarpur

B. Kanpur Dehat             2. Navgarh 

C. Sant Ravidas Nagar   3. Padrauna 

D. Kushinagar                4. Orai 

Code: 

       A      B      C      D 

(a)   4      1       2      3

(b)   4      3       2      1

(c)   2      1       3      4 

(d)   1      2       4      3

Ans: (a)

45. The first Woman General Secretary of SAARC, elected in January 2011, comes from

(a) Bangladesh

(b) Sri Lanka

(c) Maldives

(d) Bhutan

Ans: (c)

46. The 18th Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhawana Award has been given to

(a) Shabana Azmi

(b) Maulana Wahiduddin Khan

(c) Javed Akhtar

(d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

47. India in February 2011 signed Free Trade Agreement with

(a) Australia

(b) Indonesia

(c) Japan

(d) South Korea

Ans: (c)

48. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below :

List - I (City)     List - II (Aerodrome)

A. Lucknow     1. Babatpur

B. Varanasi     2. Kheria 

C. Kanpur        3. Amausi 

D. Agra           4. Chakeri 

Code: 

       A      B      C      D

(a)  4      3       1      2  

(b)  2      1       4      3 

(c)  3       2       1      4 

(d)  3      1       4      2

Ans: (d)

49. The official bird of Uttar Pradesh is

(a) Peacock

(b) Saras

(c) Parrot

(d) Cuckoo

Ans: (b)

50. The most popular religious magazine 'Kalyan' is published from

(a) Mathura

(b) Rishikesh

(c) Gorakhpur

(d) Varanasi

Ans: (c)

51. Which One of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(a) Vrindavan Mandir - Mathura

(b) J.K. Temple - Lucknow

(c) Vishwanath Mandir - Varanasi

(d) Devipatan Mandir - Tulsipur

Ans: (b)

52. Which one of the following statements regarding uttar Pradesh, according to the provisional figures of 2011 Census is not correct?

(a) It accounts for 16.5 percent of the Country's population.

(b) It has the largest 'number of children in the country.

(c) Its decadal growth rate is 18.4%.

(d) Its Sex ratio is 908.

Ans: (c)

53. Famous Charkula dance is associated with

(a) Avadh

(b) Bundelkhand

(c) Brijbhumi

(d) Rohilkhand

Ans: (c)

54. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel Agricultural University is located at

(a) Faizabad

(b) Meerut

(c) Kanpur

(d) Jhansi

Ans: (b)

55. The winner of All England Badminton championship.2011, Men's Singles Title, was

(a) Chen Jin

(b) Lee Chong Wei

(c) Lee Yong Dae

(d) Lin Dan

Ans: (b)

56. The Winner of Australian Open 2011, Men's Singles, was

(a) Andy Murray

(b) David Ferrer

(c) Novak Djkovic

(d) Roger Federer

Ans: (c)

57. The Captain of the Indian Hockey Team for Azlan Shah Cup Hockey Tournament, 2011, was

(a) Arjun Halappa

(b) Rajesh Kumar

(c) Rajpal Singh

(d) Shivendra Singh

Ans:

58. Farrukhabad is known for

(a) Carpet weaving

(b) Glassware

(c) Perfume Manufacture

(d) Hand Printing

Ans: (d)

59. In Which of the following crops Uttar Pradesh is not the largest producer in India?

(a) Polato

(b) Rice

(c) Sugarcane

(d) Wheat

Ans: (b)

60. In ICC Cricket World Cup 2011 the "man of the tournament" was

(a) Kumar Sangakarra

(b) Sachin Tendulkar

(c) Tilakratne Dilshan

(d) Yuvraj Singh

Ans: (d)

61. The "Leures World Sportsman Year" award for 2010 was given to

(a) Lionel Massi

(b) Rafael Nadal

(c) Ronaldo

(d) Sachin Tendulkar

Ans: (b)

62. 'Smash' is assosiated with which of the following sports?

(a) Boxing

(b) Wrestling

(c) Football

(d) Volleyball

Ans: (d)

63. Bula Chaudhary is well-known in which of the following sports?

(a) Swimming

(b) Hockey

(c) Football

(d) Archery

Ans: (a)

64. Tejaswani  Sawant is the first Indian woman to be crowned world championship in

(a) Athelatics

(b) Boxing

(c) Shooting

(d) Wrestling

Ans: (c)

65. The correct descending order of the four winners of the highest number of gold medals in the 34th National Games 2011 is

(a) Services, Manipur, Haryana, Maharashtra

(b) Services, Haryana, Manipur, Maharashtra

(c) Services, Manipur, Maharashtra, Haryana

(d) Services, Haryana, Maharashtra, Manipur

Ans: (a)

66. In the 34th National Games, 2011 which State. Won the team title in Badminton in Men's Section?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Kerala

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Tamil Nadu

Ans: (a)

67. "Stanley Cup' is associated with

(a) Badminton

(b) Basketball

(c) Golf

(d) Ice Hockey

Ans: (d)

68. If COMPUTER IS Coded as RFUYQNPC, the code for MEDICINE will be

(a) MFEDJJOE

(b) MFEJDJOE 

(c) EOJDEJFM

(d) EOJDJEFM

Ans: (d)

69. Introducing a girl Mohan said. "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law." How is Mohan related to that girl?

(a) Brother

(b) father

(c) Husband

(d) Uncle

Ans: (b)

70. The following series has a wrong number:

1 12 65 264 795 1590 1593

The wrong number is

(a) 65

(b) 264

(c) 795

(d) 1590

Ans: (d)

71. Govind is 3 years older than his wife Shyama and four times as old as his son Raghu. If Raghu becomes 15 years old after 3 years, what is the present age of Shyama ?

(a) 60 years

(b) 51 years

(c) 48 years

(d) 45 years

Ans: (d)

72. Ten years ago Ram's age was half of Moti's age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3 : 4, what is the total of their present ages?

(a) 25

(b) 28

(c) 32

(d) 35

Ans: (d)

73. Sonu bought a watch with 30 percent discount on the labelled price. He sold it With 20 percent profit on the labelled price. Approximately, what was his percentage of profit on the price he bought?

(a) 50

(b) 65

(c) 70

(d) 85

Ans: (c)

74. Which one of the following will come next in the series given below?

LXF MTJ NPN OLR

(a) PHV

(b) PPV

(c) PTV

(d) PJW

Ans: (a)

75. There are four prime numbers. The product of first three is 385 and the product of the last three is 1001. First and the last numbers are respectively:

(a) 5, 11

(b) 5, 13

(c) 7, 11

(d) 7, 13

Ans: (b)

76. If the number 1 X 5 X 01 is divisible by 11, then X is equal to

(a) 2

(b) 6

(c) 8

(d) 3

Ans: (c)

77. Avinash spent 2/5 of his income for a month on rent and 3/4th of the remainder on other expenses. The balance of Rs.180 he put in his savings account. How much was his income for the month?

(a) Rs. 1,200

(b) Rs. 1,400

(c) Rs. 1,600

(d) Rs. 1,800

Ans: (a)

78. The author of 'Green Development' is

(a) M.J. Bradshaw

(b) M. Nicolson

(c) R.H. Whittakar

(d) W.M. Adams

Ans: (d)

79. The missing number in the following series:

0, 4, 18, 48, ? 180 is

(a) 58

(b) 68

(c) 84

(d) 100

Ans: (d)

80. Man as started a business investing Rs. 42,000. After 7 months, Kamal joined him with a capital of Rs. 50,000. At the end of the year, the total profit was Rs. 30,160. What is Kamal's share in the profit?

(a) Rs. 10,000

(b) Rs. 20,160

(c) Rs. 10,160

(d) Rs. 8,000

Ans: (a)

81. The surface area of a cube is 384 m2 Its volume will be

(a) 512m3

(b) 516m3

(c) 1032m3

(d) 216m3

Ans: (a)

82. The World Water Conservation Day is observed on

(a) 28 February

(b) 22 March

(c) 5 June

(d) 11 July

Ans: (b)

83. The Periyar Game Sanctuary is renowned by

(a) Lions

(b) Spotted deers

(c) Tigers

(d) Wild Elephants

Ans: (c)

84. Which one of the following cities has the largest slum population?

(a) Bangalore

(b) Chennai

(c) Delhi

(d) Surat

Ans: (c)

85. Which one of the following is the most urbanized country of West Asia?

(a) Israel

(b) Kuwait

(c) Qatar

(d) Saudi Arabia

Ans:

86. Which of the following countries suffer from the acid rains?

1. Canada

2. France

3. Norway

4. Germany

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Ans:

87. The World Tiger Summit 2010 was held at

(a) Bangkok

(b) Nairobi

(c) New Delhi

(d) Petersburg

Ans: (d)

88. The author of 'Nuclear, Reactor Time Bomb' is

(a) C.C. Park

(b) E. P. Odum

(c) S. Polasky

(d) Takashi Hirose

Ans: (d)

89. Which one of the following States India has recorded the maximum increase in literacy rate during 2001-2011?

(a) Bihar

(b) Gujarat

(c) Rajasthan

(d) Uttar Pradesh

Ans: (a)

90. As per the provisional figures of 2011 Census the second most populous State of India is

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Bihar

(c) Maharashtra

(d) West Bengal 

Ans: (c)

91. Which of the following statements are correct according to the provisional figures of Census of India 2011? Use the code given below to select the correct answer:

1. The lowest population is found in Lakshadweep.

2. Chandigarh has the highest population density.

3. Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density.

4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli has the highest decadal growth of population.

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1,2 and 3

(c) 2,3 and 4

(d) 1,3 and 4

Ans: (d)

92. According to the provisional figures of Census 2011 arrange the following districts of Uttar Pradesh In descending order of their population size and select the correct answer from the code given below:

1. Allahabad

2. Azamgarh

3. Ghaziabad

4. Lucknow

Code:

(a) 1,3,2,4

(b) 1,4,3,2

(c) 2,3,1,4

(d) 4,1,2,3

Ans: (a)

93. According to the provisional figures of 2011 Census the lowest sex ratio in India is found in

(a) Chandigarh

(b) Daman and Diu

(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

(d) Haryana

Ans: (b)

94. The first Gupta ruler who issued coins was

(a) Srigupta

(b) Chandragupta I

(c) Samudragupta

(d) Chandragupta II

Ans:

95. The Prince who was responsible for the death of his father was

(a) Ajatasatru

(b) Chandapradyota

(c) Prasenjit

(d) Udayana

Ans:

96. Who among the following was the earliest Sufi Saint to have settled at Ajmer?

(a) Sheikh Moinuddin Chisti

(b) Sheikh Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Qaki

(c) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya

(d) Sheikh Salim Chisti

Ans:

97. With which Mughal General did Shivaji sign the famous 'Treaty of Purandhar in 1665 A.D?

(a) Jaswant Singh

(b) Jai Singh

(c) Shaishta Khan

(d) Diler Khan

Ans:

98. During the 13th and 14th Centuries A.D. the Indian peasants did not cultivate

(a) Wheat

(b) Barley

(c)  Rice

(d) Maize

Ans:

99. The writer of Mahabhasya 'Patanjali ' was a contemporary of

(a) Chandragupta Maurya

(b) Ashoka

(c) Pushyamitra Sunga

(d) Chandragupta I

Ans:

100. Gautama Buddha had attained Mahaparinibban in the State of

(a) Anga

(b) Magdha

(c) Malta

(d) Vatsa

Ans:

101. Buddha had delivered Maximum sermons at

(a) Vaishali

(b) Sravasti

(c) Kaushambi

(d) Rajgriha

Ans:

102. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the code given below:

1. Vikrarn Samvat began in 58 BC.

2. Saka Samvat began in 319 AD.

3. Gupta era began in 319 AD.

4. The era of Muslim rule in India began in 1192 AD.

Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1,2, 3 and 4

Ans:

103. Which one of the following rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?

(a) Haider Ali

(b) Mir Qasim

(c) Shah Alam II

(d) Tipu Sultan

Ans:

104. Who among the following was the one to have escaped being hanged in the 'Kakori Conspiracy Case'?

(a) Ashfaqullah Khan

(b) Rajendra Lahiri

(c) Ram Prasad Bismil

(d) Chandra Shekhar Azad

Ans:

105. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) B.R. Ambedkar

(c) Vallabh Bhai Patel

(d) Rajendra Prasad

Ans:

106. Which Sultan of Delhi imposed Jaziya on the Brahmins also?

(a) Balban

(b) Firoz Tughlaq

(c) Allauddin Khilji

(d) Mohammad bin Tughlaq

Ans:

107. Who among the following was the founder of Agra?

(a) Balban

(b) Bahlol Lodhi

(c) Sikandar Lodhi

(d) Firoz Tughlaq 

Ans:

108. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Ajmer-Quuwal-al-Islam

(b) Jaunpur - Atala Mosque

(c) Malwa - Jahaz Mahal

(d) Gulbarga - Jama Masjid

Ans:

109.  Who among the following leaders of the Revolution of 1857 had the real name of Ram Chandra Pandurang ?

(a) Kunwar Singh

(b) Nana Saheb

(c) Tatiya Tope

(d) Mangal Pandey

Ans:

110. Who among the following led the agitation against the Partition of Bengal (1905) ?

(a) Surendranath Banerjee

(b) C. R. Das

(c) Ashutosh Mukherjee

(d) Rabindra Nath Tagore

Ans:

111. Who among the following leaders escaped from the prison and organized underground activities during the 'Quit India Movement' ?

(a) J.B. Kriplani

(b) Ram Manohar Lohia

(c) Achyut Patwardhan

(d) Jai Prakash Narayan

Ans:

112. Arrange the following In the chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below:

1. The August Offer

2. The Cabinet Mission Plan

3. The Cripps Mission Plan

4. The Wavell Plan

Code:

(a) 1, 2, 4, 3

(b) 4, 3, 2, 1

(c) 1, 3, 4, 2

(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Ans:

113. After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in

(a) Champaran

(b) Chauri Chaura

(c) Bardoli

(d) Dandi

Ans:

114. The only session of the Indian National Congress addressed by Mahatma held at

(a) Amravati

(b) Belgaum

(c) Karachi

(d) Nagpur 

Ans:

115. Who among the following had moved the Non co-operation resolution in the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress in 1920 ?

(a) C.R. Das

(b) Annie Besant

(c) B.C. Pal

(d) Madan Mohan Malviya

Ans:

116. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

(a) Durga Das : The Life of Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Louis Fischer: India From Curzon to Nehru and After

(c) Frank Moraes: Jawahar Lal Nehru - A Biography

(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad : India Divided

Ans:

117. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched ?

(a) James Watt: Steam Engine

(b) A. G. Bell : Telephone

(c) J. L. Baird : Television

(d) J. Perkins : Penicillin

Ans: (d)

118. Who among the following had started 'Mitra Mela' Association ?

(a) Shyamji Krishna Verma

(b) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar

(c) Lala Hardayal

(d) Sohan Singh Bhakna

Ans: (b)

119. The statement "I am a socialist and a republican and am no believer Kings and Princes" is associated with

(a) Narendra Dev

(b) Achyut Patwardhan

(c) Jai Prakash Narayan

(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru 

Ans:

120. Who among the following had led the Swadeshi Movement in Delhi.

(a) Balgangadhar Tilak

(b) Ajit Singh

(c) Lala Lajpat Rai

(d) Syed Haider Raza

Ans:

121. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? 

(a) Silver iodide - Horn Silver

(b) Silver chloride - Artificial rain

(c) Zinc phosphide - Rat poison

(d) Zinc sulphide - Philosopher's wool

Ans:

122. Which one of the following gases is essential for photosynthesis process ? 

(a) CO 

(b) Co2

(c) N2 

(d) O2

Ans: (b)

123.  Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below: 

List - I                       List - II 

A. Morphine              1. Antiseptic 

B. Sodium                 2. Alloy 

C. Boric Acid             3. Analgesic 

D. German Silver      4. Kerosene oil

Code:

       A     B    C     D 

(a)  4     3     1     2 

(b)  2     4     3     1 

(c)  3      1     4     2 

(d)  3     4     1     2

Ans: (d)

124. Which one of the following human organs is most susceptible to harmful radiations ?

(a) Eyes

(b) Heart

(c) Brain

(d) Lungs

Ans:

125. The minimum height of a plane mirror to see the full size image of a person is equal to

(a) the height of the person

(b) half the height of the person

(c) one-fourth the height of the person

(d) double the height of the person

Ans: (b)

126. Helium is preferred to hydrogen in air balloons because it

(a) is cheaper

(b) is less dense

(c) has greater lifting power

(d) does not form an explosive mixture with air.

Ans: (d)

127.  Which one of the following is NOT formed in our body ?

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Protein

(c) Enzyme

(d) Hormone

Ans: (a)

128. Anosmia is

(a) loss of the sense of taste.

(b) loss of the sense of smell.

(c) loss of the sense of touch.

(d) loss of the sense of heat.

Ans: (b)

129.  Assertion (A) : If somebody stops taking green vegetables he will suffer from night blindness.

Reason (R) : He will suffer from Vitamin A deficiency.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true. but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (d)

130. Insectivorous fish used for mosquito control is

(a) Hilsa

(b) Labeo

(c) Gambusia

(d) Mystus

Ans: (c)

131. With which of the physiological process Thrombin is associated ?

(a) Excretion

(b) Blood clotting

(c) Reproduction

(d) Growth

Ans: (b)

132. AIDS is caused by

(a) Bacteria

(b) Fungus

(c) Helminth

(d) Virus

Ans: (d)

133.  Which of the following is NOT the normal function of the human kidney ?

(a) Regulation of water level in the blood.

(b) Regulation of sugar level ill the blood. 

(c) filter out urea.

(d) Secretion of several hormones.

Ans: (d)

134. Retina of the eye is comparable to which of the following parts of a traditional camera ?

(a) Film

(b) Lens

(c) Shutter

(d) Cover

Ans: (a)

135. Which one of the following is used as a moderator in the nuclear reactor?

(a) Thorium

(b) Graphite

(c) Radium

(d) Ordinary water

Ans: (b)

136. Refrigeration helps in food preservation by

(a) killing the germs

(b) reducing the rate of biochemical reactions

(c) destroying enzyme action.

(d) sealing the food with a layer of ice.

Ans: (b)

137. Electric bulb filament is made of

(a) Copper

(b) Aluminium

(c) Lead

(d) Tungsten

Ans: (d)

138. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in the vehicles?

(a) Plane

(b) Convex

(c) Concave

(d) Inverted

Ans: (b)

139. Which one of the following is a part of Infotech Terminology?

(a) Protocol

(b) Login

(c) Archie

(d) All the above

Ans: (d)

140. Inventor and founder of www is

(a) Timbernrus

(b) N. Russel

(c) Lee N. Fiyong

(d) Bill Gates

Ans: (a)

141. Amniocentosis is a method used to determine the

(a) foetal sex

(b) kind of Amino acids

(c) sequence of Amino acids in protein

(d) type of hormones

Ans: (c)

142. BMD testing is done to diagnose

(a) Dengue

(b) Malaria

(c) Osteoporosis

(d) AIDS

Ans: (c)

143. The principle 'of 'Black hole' was enunciated by

(a) C.V. Raman

(b) H.J. Bhabha

(c) S. Chandrashekhar

(d) H. Khurana

Ans: (c)

144. Which one of the following has the right to address the Parliament?

(a) Attorney General of India

(b) Chief Election Commissioner of India

(c) Chief Justice of India

(d) National Security Advisor

Ans: (a)

145. Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is NOT correct?

(a) The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of Government.

(b) The foremost function of the Parliament is to provide a Cabinet.

(c) The membership of the Cabinet is restricted to the Lower House.

(d) The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the popular Chamber.

Ans: (c)

146. Voting right by the youths at the age of 18 years was exercised for the first time in the General Election of

(a) 1987

(b) 1988

(c) 1989

(d) 1990

Ans: (c)

147. Under which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution, the Legislative Assembly is allowed to resolve for the creation of the Legislative Council?

(a) 168

(b) 169

(c) 170

(d) 171

Ans: (b)

148. Missile' Astra' is a

(a) land to land missile

(b) land to air missile

(c) air to air missile

(d) water to land missile

Ans: (c)

149. Indane gas is a mixture of

(a) butane and hydrogen

(b) butane and oxygen

(c) butane and propane

(d) methane and oxygen

Ans: (c)

150. Which one of the following States has granted Sanskrit language the status of the second 'official language of the State?

(a) Bihar

(b) Chhattisgarh

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Uttarakhand

Ans: (d)

UPPSC-QUESTION PAPER -2011-POLITICAL SCIENCE

1. Which of the following institutions does not deal with pulic grievances?

(a) Lok Ayukta 

(b) Supreme Court 

(c) High Court 

(d) Planning Commission

2. The Khilafat Movement was started by whom of the following?

(a) Ali Brothers

(b) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan 

(c) Mohammad Iqbal 

(d) Zakir Hussain

3. Which one of the following articles of Indian Constitution empowers the President to appoint comptroller and Auditor General of India?

(a) Article 147

(b) Article 148

(c) Article 149

(d) Article 151

4. The seat of a member of Parliament can be declared vacant if the member is absent from the house without permission for a period of

(a) Three year

(b) Two year

(c) One year

(d) Sixty days

5. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty under the Indian Constitution?

(a) To protect monuments of national importance 

(b) To safeguard public property 

(c) To develop scientific temper 

(d) To uphold the unity and integrity of the nation

6. The Quorum for the meeting of the Legislative Assembly is

(a) One tenth of the total membership or ten members, whichever is greater 

(b) Not less than twelve members

(c) Not less than twenty members 

(d) Number determined by the speaker

7. The Chief Election Commissioner of Indian can be removed from office by

(a) President of India

(b) Council of Ministers 

(c) Supreme Court 

(d) Procedure laid down for the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court

8. Financial distribution of taxes between Union and States takes place on the basis of recommendations of which of the following bodies?

(a) The Planning Commission 

(b) The National Devlopment Council 

(c) The Finance Commission 

(d) The National Advisory Council

9. Which one of the following pairs is not properly matched?

(a) 42nd Amendment – Fundamental Duties

(b) 52nd Amendment – Anti Defection Law 

(c) 73rd Amendment – Panchayati Raj

(d) 84th Amendment – Center-State Relations

10.  In case of decision on the question as to disqualification of members of either house of the Parliament, the final decision is taken by

(a) The Supreme Court 

(b) The Election Commission 

(c) The President after obtaining the opinion of the Election Commission 

(d) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court

11. Who among the following holda the view that the State is prior to individual?

(a) Plato 

(b) Aristotle 

(c) Hobbes 

(d) Hegel

12.  Who among the following defined the States as ‘a politically organized people of a definite territory’ ?

(a) Garner 

(b) Bluntschli 

(c) Laski 

(d) Wilson

13. The statement the ‘the State is a political super-structure on Economic base’ is associated with which of the following?

(a) Social Contract Theory 

(b) Organic Theory  

(c) Evolutionary Theory

(d) Marxist Theory

14. Who among the following was first to propound the concept of popular sovereigntly?

(a) Hobbes 

(b) Locke

(c) Rousseau 

(d) Mill

15. Who among the following was the first exponent of organic theory of state?

(a) Plato 

(b) Spencer 

(c) Machiavelli

(d) Marx

16. Which one of the following does not pertain to Marxism?

(a) Materialistic interpretation of history

(b) Class struggle 

(c) Surplus value 

(d) Laissez Faire

17. The term ‘Socialism’ was first used by whom of the following?

(a) Lenin 

(b) Robert Owen 

(c) Karl Marx

(d) Hegel

18. Who among the following said, ‘State is the March of God on Earth’?

(a) Plato

(b) Kant 

(c) Hegel 

(d) Green

19. Who among the following developed the concept of external sovereigntly?

(a) Grotious 

(b) Oppenheim 

(c) John Austin 

(d) Bodin

20. Who among the following said : ‘Law is the command of the Sovereign’ ?

(a) Austin 

(b) Laski

(c) Bentham 

(d) Aquinas

21. Who made the statement, ‘A modern State without a constitution is not a State but a regime of anarchy’?

(a) Lord Bryce

(b) A.V. Diecy 

(c) Jellinek 

(d) G.B. Shaw

22. General Will of Rousseau is

(a) Majority will 

(b) Will of all 

(c) Minority will 

(d) Total of real will of all

23. Who among the following proposed the monistic theory of sovereignty?

(a) Austin 

(b) Locke 

(c) Aquinas 

(d) Plato

24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I                 List-II

A. James I        1. The Social Contract 

B. Locke           2. The Law of Free Monarchies 

C. Rousseau    3. The Nature of  State 

D. Willoughby  4. Two treatises on Civil Government

Code:

      A    B    C    D

(a) 1    3    2    4

(b) 1    2    3    4

(c) 1    4    2    3

(d) 2    4    1    3

25. Who said, ‘Welfare State is a compromise between communism on the one side and unbridled individualism on the other.’?

(a) Abraham 

(b) Kant 

(c) Hobman 

(d) Rousseau

26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below:

List-I                List-II

A. J.S. Mill        1. Lecture on principles of political obligation  

B. T.H. Green   2. A Theory of Justice  

C. H.J. Laski     3. Grammer of Politics  

D. John Rawls  4. On Liberty

Code:

      A    B    C    D

(a) 4    1    3    2

(b) 1    2    3    4

(c) 4    3    2    1

(d) 1    3    4    2

27. The basic element of the theory of Liberalism is

(a) Individual freedom 

(b) Mixed economy

(c) Secularism 

(d) Equality

28. Who among the following considers ‘Right to Self Protection’ as a Natural Right of the individual?

(a) Plato 

(b) Bentham 

(c) Hobbes 

(d) Burke

29. Who among the following has distinguished between legal and Political sovereignty?

(a) Bentham 

(b) Dicey 

(c) Hume 

(d) Mill

30. Who is called the father of Indian Renaissance?

(a) Ravindra Nath Tagore 

(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy 

(d) S.N. Banerjee

31. Which one of the following political theories considers the State as a necessary evil?

(a) Socialism 

(b) Anarchism 

(c) Fascism 

(d) Individualism

32. Which of the following is the most accepted theory of the origin of the State?

(a) Force theory 

(b) Divine origin theory 

(c) Social contact theory 

(d) Evolutionary theory

33. The Pluralistic theory of sovereignty was first propounded by

(a) Laski 

(b) Von Gierke 

(c) Bodin 

(d) Maclver

34. Which one of the following did not influence the evolution of the State?

(a) Political consciousness 

(b) Political parties 

(c) Kinship 

(d) Religion

35. ‘Political Liberty in the absence of economic equality is a mere myth’. Who said it?

(a) G.D.H. Cole

(b) H.J. Laski 

(c) J.S. Mill 

(d) Ernest Barker

36. Which one of the following books is not written by Machiavelli?

(a) The Prince 

(b) The Discourses

(c) The Art of War 

(d) Behemoth

37. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Hobbes – Lectures on Jurisprudence 

(b) Aristotle – Republic 

(c) James Bryce – Modern Democracies 

(d) Robert A. Dahl – Grammar of Politics

38. Who among the following propounded the concept of trusteeship?

(a) M.N. Roy 

(b) Aurobindo Ghosh

(c) Mahatma Gandhi 

(d) Gokhale

39. Which one of the following is not an agent of public opinion?

(a) Press 

(b) Judiciary 

(c) Political parties 

(d) TV and Radio

40. In 1936, who said, ‘there is nothing as Gandhism’?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi 

(b) Maulana Azad 

(c) Tagore 

(d) Nehru

41. The modern idea which has made democracy feasible for large and complex societies is

(a) Right 

(b) Decentralization 

(c) Federalism 

(d) Representation

42. Public opinion necessarily means

(a) Opinion based on reason 

(b) Opinion of the majority 

(c) Opinion which aims at the welfare of the whole community 

(d) Opinion of all concerned

43. Concept of negative liberty emphasizes on which one of the following?

(a) Equality 

(b) Autonomy 

(c) Absence of interference 

(d) Freedom of choice

44. Which one of the following did not constitute the concept od Swaraj for Mahatma Gandhi?

(a) Self rule 

(b) Pursuit of good of all 

(c) Rule of morally good individual 

(d) Rule of Law

45. Who among the following said, Liberty and equality are complimentary to each other’?

(a) Maclver 

(b) Machiavelli 

(c) Lord Acton  

(d) D. Tocquvelli

46. Who among the following is the author of ‘The Modern State’?

(a) Barker 

(b) Maclver 

(c) Weber 

(d) Laski

47. Who among the following is considered as neo-liberal?

(a) Maclver

(b) Laski

(c) Havek 

(d) Green

48. Deconstructionism is associated with which of the following?

(a) Nozik 

(b) Derrida 

(c) Popper 

(d) Habermas

49. The system of proportional representation as an electoral mechanism ensures

(a) Representation of minorities 

(b) Rule of majority 

(c) Stability in government 

(d) Common political thinking

50. ‘Right  are those conditions of life without which no man can seek to be himself of his best.’ Who said this?

(a) Aristotle 

(b) Jennings 

(c) Maitland 

(d) Laski

51. Which one of the following is not consistent with the Marxian view regarding the Nature of the State?

(a) State does not stand for the good of all.

(b) State stands for the good of all.

(c) State promotes the interests of the few at the cost of many.

(d) State is mutual insurance pact of bouregeois class.

52. Demand for ‘equal pay for equal work’ is a

(a) Legal demand for economic right 

(b) Political demand for economic right 

(c) Economic demand for legal right 

(d) Economic demand for political right

53. Who among the following has not accepted democracy as an ideal form of government?

(a) Hobbes 

(b) Dahl 

(c) Sartori 

(d) Lincoln

54. Which one of the following is not a method of representation of minorities?

(a) Proportional Representation 

(b) List System 

(c) Limited vote system 

(d) Universal suffrage

55. Right to vote is a

(a) Social right 

(b) Personal right 

(c) Political right 

(d) Legal right

56. Who among the following gave an elitist theory of political parties?

(a) Burke 

(b) Sartori 

(c) Mill 

(d) Friedman

57. Given below are two statements, one is labelled Assertion  (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion  (A) : The goal of a political party is to capture ruling power.

Reason (R) : Political parties contest elections

Answer Code :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) 

(c) (A) is true but (R) is false 

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

58. Liberty is the positive power of doing or enjoying something worth doing or enjoying’. Who amongst the following propounded this view?

(a) John Stuart Mill 

(b) Herbert spencer

(c) Edmund Bruke 

(d) T.H. Green

59. The view that ‘imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism is associated with which of the following?

(a) Liberalism 

(b) Socialism 

(c) Leninism 

(d) Utilitarianism

60. Who among the following has called political parties ‘Power behind throne’?

(a) Lord Bryce

(b) Herman Finer 

(c) Bluntschli 

(d) H.J. Laski

61. Who among the following has termed Marxism as ‘illusion of the epoch’?

(a) Lord Acton 

(b) Maclver 

(c) Karl Popper 

(d) H.J. Laski

62. Where did the modern party system first evolve?

(a) U.S.A.

(b) France 

(c) England 

(d) Belgium

63. Who among the following has termed pressure group as ‘Anonymous Empire’?

(a) Lucian W. Pye 

(b) Gabriel Almond 

(c) Finer 

(d) F.W. Riggs

64. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The idea of Justice’?

(a) John Locke 

(b) J.S. Mill 

(c) John Rawls 

(d) Amartya Sen

65. Which aspect of justice was emphasized by Greek Philosophers?

(a) Social 

(b) Moral

(c) Legal 

(d) Political

66. Which one of the following is a theory of representation?

(a) Electoral college 

(b) Coalition government 

(c) Common Minimum Programme 

(d) Single Transferable vote

67. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘Public Opinion’?

(a) Betham 

(b) Lipman  

(c) Locke 

(d) Rousseau

68. Which among the following is related to ‘Laissez Faire’ Theory?

(a) Socialism 

(b) Individualism 

(c) Utilitarianism 

(d) Idealism

69. Supremacy of judiciary is found in

(a) U.S.A.

(b) China 

(c) England 

(d) France

70. Which among the following provides for the division of power in federal system?

(a) Legislature 

(b) Constitution 

(c) Supreme Court 

(d) Government

71. In which one of the following systems of government is bicameralism an essential feature?

(a) Presidential system 

(b) Federal system 

(c) Parliamentary system 

(d) Unitary system

72. The concept of constitutional government was first elaborated by whom of the following?

(a) Plato 

(b) Aristotle 

(c) Bodin 

(d) Machiavelli

73. To whom are the members of the cabinet accountable under a Presidential system of government?

(a) The President 

(b) Individually to the legislature 

(c) Collectively to the legislature 

(d) The Electorate

74. Which one of the following countries is regarded as the traditional home of rule of law?

(a) France 

(b) Switzerland 

(c) U.S.A.

(d) England

75. Who among the following said that under the parliamentary form of government ‘bureaucracy thrives under the cloak of ministerial responsibility’?

(a) Herman Finer

(b) Ramsay Muir  

(c) Harold Laski 

(d) Ivor Jennings

76. Which one of the following is the basis of federal government?

(a) Supremacy of the Parliament

(b) Supremacy of Judiciary 

(c) Division of powers between federal and state government

(d) Single citizenship

77. Governments are classified as Parliamentary and Presidential on the basis of which of the following?

(a) Relations between legislature and Executive 

(b) Relations between politicians and civil servants 

(c) Written or unwritten constitutions 

(d) Rigid or flexible constitutions

78. Which of the following statements correctly explains the nature of constitutional government?

(a) Limited Government 

(b) Protection of Right to Freedom of individuals 

(c) Security of the rights of individuals

(d) All the above

79. The cabinet in the parliamentary system is accountable to

(a) The President 

(b) The Prime Minister 

(c) The Council of Ministers 

(d) The Legislature

80. The Presidential system operates on the principle of

(a) Division of powers 

(b) Separation of powers 

(c) Fusion of powers 

(d) Balance of powers

81. The first systematic classification of government was given by

(a) Plato 

(b) Aristotle 

(c) Machiavelli 

(d) Montesequieu

82. Which one of the following is not correct about the Parliamentary system of government?

(a) It emphasizes more on stability than responsibility.

(b) It emphasises more on responsibility than stability.

(c) It emphasises on free and fair elections.

(d) It prefers two party system.

83. In what respect the Indian federal system is similar to that of the United States?

(a) Method of distribution of powers between centre and the States 

(b) Procedure of creation of new states 

(c) Position of judiciary

(d) Representation of States in the upper house of the federal legislature

84. In a Presidential form of Government all executive powers are vested in

(a) The President 

(b) The Cabinet 

(c) The Legislature 

(d) The Judiciary

85. Put the following events in correct chronological order:

1. Gadar Party 

2. Khilafat Movement 

3. Dandi March 

4. Champaran Satyagrah

(a) 4, 1, 2, 3

(b) 4, 1, 3, 2

(c) 1, 4, 3, 2

(d) 1, 4, 2, 3

86. Who used first the term “One party dominant system” to describe the party system that prevailed in India after independence?

(a) Rajani Kothari 

(b) Sartori 

(c) Jennings 

(d) Morris Jones

87. The Indian Constitution empowers the President to make provision for discharge of duties of Governor in certain contingencies under which of the following articles?

(a) Article 160

(b) Article 162

(c) Article 165

(d) Article 310

88. Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution enunciates fundamental duties?

(a) Article 35

(b) Article 51A

(c) Article 32

(d) Article 14

89. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the ideal of Welfare State?

(a) Preamble 

(b) Fundamentals Rights 

(c) Directive Principles of State Policy 

(d) Fundamental Duties

90. The term ‘State’ has been defined in which of the following articles of Indian constitution?

(a) Article 1

(b) Article 8

(c) Article 10

(d) Article 12

91. Who among the following was the first Vice-President of India?

(a) Zakir Hussain 

(b) S. Radhakrishnan

(c) V.V. Giri

(d) Gopal Swaroop Pathak 

92. The Swaraj Party was founded by whom of the following?

(a) C.R. Das 

(b) Motilal Nehru 

(c) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru

(d) C.R. Das and Maulana Azad

93. Who is the author of the book ‘The Makers of Modern India’?

(a) Sumit Sarkar 

(b) Bipin Chandra

(c) Bimal Prasad 

(d) Ramchandra Guha

94. The Jalianwala Kand took place in 1919 on which of the following dates?

(a) 10th April 

(b) 13th April

(c) 14th April

(d) 19th April

95. Which of the following bodies is not provided in the Indian Constitution?

(a) Public Service Commission 

(b) Election Commission 

(c) Planning Commission 

(d) Finance Commission

96. The philosophical foundation of the Indian Constitution is

(a) Directive Principles of State Policy 

(b) Fundamentals Rights 

(c) Federal Structure

(d) Preamble

97. Indian Parliament constitutes of

(a) Lok Sabha 

(b) Rajya Sabha 

(c) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 

(d) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President

98. The total number of the members of the Legislative Council  of Uttar Pradesh is

(a) 105

(b) 108

(c) 110

(d) 125

99. Who presides the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament?

(a) President of India 

(b) Prime Minister 

(c) Chairperson of Rajya Sabha 

(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

100. Under which Article of Indian Constitution a High Court can issue writs to protect the Fundamental Rights?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 32 

(c) Article 35

(d) Article 226

101. The Legal Advisor of the State Government is called

(a) Attorney General

(b) Solicitor General 

(c) Advocate General 

(d) None of the above

102. Which of the following of Indian Constitution empowers the Governor to issue during recess of the State legislature?

(a) Article 210

(b) Article 211

(c) Article 213

(d) Article 214

103. The First Round Table  Conference began on

(a) 11th November, 1930

(b) 12th November, 1930

(c) 13th November, 1930

(d) 14th November, 1930

104. Who was the main architect of Home Rule Movement in India?

(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale 

(b) Annie Beasant 

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) Surendranath Banerjee

105. Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court mentioned in which of the following articles of Indian constitution?

(a) Article 131

(b) Article 132

(c) Article 143

(d) Article 148

106. Who said that ‘the emergency powers of the President are a fraud on the constitution’?

(a) K.M. Nambiar 

(b) K.M. Munshi 

(c) B.N. Rao

(d) K.T. Shah

107. Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to legislate on a subject of the State List?

(a) Article 115

(b) Article 116

(c) Article 226

(d) Article 249

108. When was the first amendment in the Indian Constitution made?

(a) July 1950

(b) December 1950

(c) June 1951

(d) July 1951

109. The Eleventh Scheduled of Indian Constitution deals which of the following?

(a) Official Languages

(b) Political Parties 

(c) Municipalities 

(d) Panchayati Raj

110. Which of the following writes literally means ‘We Command’?

(a) Habeas Corpus 

(b) Mandamus 

(c) Prohibition 

(d) Quo-Warranto

111. Which article of Indian Constitution provides an jurisdiction to the Supreme Court?

(a) Article 129

(b) Article 132

(c) Article 143

(d) Article 32

112. In which of the following cases Supreme Court of India enunciated the doctrine of basis structure?

(a) Keshwanand Bharti Case

(b) Golaknath Case

(c) Minnerwa Mills Case

(d) Gopalan Case

113. Which one of the following is a subject of concurrent list?

(a) Police 

(b) Criminal Matters 

(c) Radio and Television 

(d) Foreign Affairs

114. The decision for Quit India Movement was taken at which of the following places?

(a) Allahabad 

(b) Poona 

(c) Wardha 

(d) Sabarmati

115. Sarkaria Commission was related with which of the following?

(a) Judicial reforms 

(b) Federal reforms

(c) Electoral reforms

(d) Financial reforms

116. Which of the following is termed as ‘Magna Carta of Indian Liberties’?

(a) Regulating Act of 1773

(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784

(c) Charter Act of 1813

(d) Queen’s proclamation of 1858

117. Which one of the following word is not mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Sovereign 

(b) Secular 

(c) Federal 

(d) Democratic

118. The Constitution of India vests the executive powers of the Indian Union to which of the following?

(a) The Prime Minister 

(b) The president 

(c) The Councils of Ministers

(d) The Parliament

119. Who among the following acts as presiding officer of the house without being its member?

(a) Vice President 

(b) Lok Sabha Speaker 

(c) Chairman of the Legislative Council

(d) Speaker of Legislative Assembly

120. Dyarchy was introduced in Indian provinces by

(a) Indian Council’s Act, 1861

(b) Indian Council’s Act, 1892

(c) Government of India Act, 1919

(d) Government of India Act, 1935